156-215.81.20 Dumps Questions - Effective Way to Get Certified

156-215.81.20 Dumps Questions – Effective Way to Get Certified

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August 23, 2024

If you're in the field of Check Point, you know how important it is to stay up-to-date with the latest knowledge and skills to protect your organization's networks and data. One way to do that is by obtaining CCSA R81.20, specifically the 156-215.81.20 exam. While preparing for the 156-215.81.20 exam, you might consider using 156-215.81.20 dumps to help you familiarize yourself with the exam format and content. These 156-215.81.20 exam dumps questions can be an effective way to gauge your knowledge and identify areas where you may need additional study. Study online free 156-215.81.20 exam dumps below.

Page 1 of 13

1. Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Accept all encrypted traffic

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Specific VPN Communities

2. Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Data Loss Prevention

Antivirus

Application Control

NAT

3. What is the main objective when using Application Control?

To filter out specific content.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

To see what users are doing.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

4. In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

5. Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

AES-128

AES-256

DES

3DES

6. What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

There is a blade reporting a problem

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

7. Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Shared secret

Certificate

One-time password

Token

8. True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

9. When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

10. An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

The Gateway is an SMB device

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Page 2 of 13

11. Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

RADIUS

Check Point password

TACACS

SecurlD

12. Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

STATE Engine

TRACK Engine

RECORD Engine

INSPECT Engine

13. John is using Management HA.

Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

secondary Smartcenter

active Smartcenter

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

primary Smartcenter

14. R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Windows only

Gaia only

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

SecurePlatform only

15. What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

16. Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by?

ELA and CPD

FWD and LEA

FWD and CPLOG

ELA and CPLOG

17. Fill in the blank When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management it is then referred to as_____

User Center

User Administration

User Directory

UserCheck

18. What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

19. What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Verification tool

Verification licensing

Automatic licensing

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

20. Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

file attributes

application information

destination port

data type information

Page 3 of 13

21. To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from

‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity.

Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

The Access Control Policy.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

22. What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Application Control, DLP

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

23. What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

clish

Monitor

Read-only

Bash

24. Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

25. Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

26. Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

IPS

Application Control and URL Filtering

Threat Emulation

Anti-virus

27. What SmartEvent component creates events?

Consolidation Policy

Correlation Unit

SmartEvent Policy

SmartEvent GUI

28. What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

29. To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

30. What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Original packet and translated packet

Manipulated packet and original packet

Translated packet and untranslated packet

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

Page 4 of 13

31. Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

backup

snapshot

Database Revision

migrate export

32. Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

AES-GCM-256

AES-CBC-256

AES-GCM-128

33. To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

34. Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

Main

Authentication

Quick

High Alert

35. Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

print cplic

show licenses

fwlic print

cplic print

36. An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule.

What should be done to fix this?

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

37. Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

On the Policy Package

On each Security Gateway

On the Policy layer

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

38. Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Save Policy

Install Database

Save session

Install Policy

39. When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

Publish database

Activate policy

Install policy

Save changes

40. Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

UserCheck

User Directory

Captive Portal

Page 5 of 13

41. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

show cluster state

show active cluster

show clusters

show running cluster

42. Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

INSPECT Engine

Next-Generation Firewall

Packet Filtering

Application Layer Firewall

43. When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Access Role

User Group

SmartDirectory Group

Group Template

44. Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

45. You have discovered suspicious activity in your network.

What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

46. Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

Software blade; software container

Software package: signature

Signature; software blade

Software container software package

47. Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

SmartEvent

SmartView Tracker

SmartLog

SmartView Monitor

48. In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

49. Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

Penalty Box

Drop Rule in the rulebase

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

Stealth rule

50. URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Control Bandwidth issues

Control Data Security

Improve organizational security

Decrease legal liability

Page 6 of 13

51. R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Versions R77 and higher

Versions R76 and higher

Versions R75.20 and higher

Version R75 and higher

52. Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Pre-shared secret

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

Symmetrical IPSec key

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

53. The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances.

How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

54. While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

55. A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time.

What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Anti-Bot protection

Anti-Malware protection

Policy-based routing

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

56. Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

57. Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

58. Choose what BEST describes a Session

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

59. Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

Central Licensing is actually not supported with Gaia.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

60. The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Page 7 of 13

61. Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network

users.

User index

UserCheck

User Directory

User server

62. In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

Publish changes

Save changes

Install policy

Install database

63. Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Inline

Explicit

Implicit drop

Implicit accept

64. What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

65. To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

66. You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway.

Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

fwd

fwm

cpd

cpwd

67. Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Access Control

Threat Emulation

Threat Prevention

QoS

68. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

Is configured using cpconfig

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

69. Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Manage and Command Line

Logs and Monitor

Security Policies

Gateway and Servers

70. There are four policy types available for each policy package.

What are those policy types?

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NA

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

Page 8 of 13

71. Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

AD Query

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

RADIUS and Account Logon

72. What is UserCheck?

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

73. Which command shows the installed licenses?

cplic print

print cplic

fwlic print

show licenses

74. What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Access Role

User Group

SmartDirectory Group

Group Template

75. Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

76. Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

cat $FWDlR/conf/vpn.conf

vpn tu tlist

vpn tu

cpview

77. URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time.

What is the name of that technology?

WebCheck

UserCheck

Harmony Endpoint

URL categorization

78. How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.

Provides log details view email to the Administrator.

Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.

Provides additional information to the connected user.

79. Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

IPS blade

IPSEC VPN Blade

Identity Awareness Blade

Firewall Blade

80. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

X-chkp-sid

Accept-Charset

Proxy-Authorization

Application

Page 9 of 13

81. Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Security Gateway Contract file

Service Contract file

License Management file

License Contract file

82. At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

Upon creation of a certificate

When an administrator decides to create one

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

83. In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Different computers or appliances.

The same computer or appliance.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

84. Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Accept all encrypted traffic

Specific VPN Communities

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

85. Publish the policy.

86. Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

RADIUS

Check Point password

Security questions

SecurID

87. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

SSL

Captive Portal

PKI

RSA

88. Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel.

Which port is used for this?

UDP port 265

TCP port 265

UDP port 256

TCP port 256

89. After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

90. Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Log server; Security Gateway

Log server; security management server

Security management server; Security Gateway

Security Gateways; log server

Page 10 of 13

91. You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway.

How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

92. Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Identity Collector

Endpoint VPN client

SmartConsole

Proxy Server

93. Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Publish database

Save changes

Install policy

Activate policy

94. Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

95. What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

96. Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

Proactively detects threats

Delivers file with original content

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

97. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Accounting

Suppression

Accounting/Suppression

Accounting/Extended

98. Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Down

No Response

Inactive

Failed

99. What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

100. Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Basic C Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

Optimized C Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

Strict C Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

Recommended C Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Page 11 of 13

101. Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Connection Cache

State Cache

State Table

Network Table

102. Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Full

Custom

Complete

Light

103. Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

CloudSec deployment

Disliked deployment

Router only deployment

Standalone deployment

104. With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

The IP address of the source machine.

The end user credentials.

The host portion of the UR

105. What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

106. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

cphaprob state

cphaprob status

cphaprob

cluster state

107. Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

UDP

CCP

TDP

HTTP

108. What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

A host route to route to the destination IP

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

109. Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

DLP shared policy

Geo policy shared policy

Mobile Access software blade

HTTPS inspection

110. Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Central

Corporate

Local

Formal

Page 12 of 13

111. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

112. If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Save and install the Policy

Delete older versions of database

Revert the session.

Publish or discard the session

113. Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

All-in-one (stand-alone)

Log server

SmartEvent

Multi-domain management server

114. In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Hide; source

Static; source

Simple; source

Hide; destination

115. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

116. Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n)

___________ Server.

SecurID

LDAP

NT domain

SMTP

117. Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

675, 389

389, 636

636, 290

290, 675

118. Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Explicit Drop

Implied Drop

Explicit Cleanup

Implicit Drop

119. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

SmartConsole

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

Security Management Server

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

120. When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

Static NAT

Static Route

HTTPS Inspection

Page 13 of 13

121. Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

Perpetual and Trial

Evaluation and Subscription

Subscription and Perpetual

122. How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

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