4A0-100 Online Dumps Boost Your Career

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October 10, 2024

The 4A0-100 Nokia IP network and Service fundamentals certification exam is challenging, and it's natural to feel anxious and nervous before taking the exam. Practicing with 4A0-100 dumps questions can help alleviate this anxiety by boosting your confidence. As you practice and become more familiar with the exam format and content, you'll feel more confident in your abilities, which can help you perform better on the actual 4A0-100 exam. Practicing with 4A0-100 questions can increase your chances of success in the certification exam. Practice free Alcatel Lucent 4A0-100 exam dumps below.

Page 1 of 10

1. What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced from that host cannot be delivered?

Echo Request.

Destination Unreachable.

Router redirect.

Echo Reply.

2. Which of the following involves grouping a number of routes with common prefixes into a single route advertisement?

Hierarchical IP Addressing

IP Address Subnetting

Variable Length Subnet Masking

IP Address Summarization

3. The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

An application and session layer.

A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

A transport layer with two protocols.

An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

4. Which of the following statements about the OSPF HELLO message is TRUE?

It is used to maintain adjacency between neighbors.

It is used to request link state updates from neighbors.

It is used to deliver link state updates to neighbors.

It is used to confirm delivery of updates between neighbors.

5. With which of the following log destinations does an event log disappear when you log off a Nokia 7750 SR?

Console

Session

Memory

File

6. Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data?

AAL0

AAL1

AAL2

AAL3/4

AAL5

7. Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain.

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains.

8. Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.

ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

9. Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

10 Mb/s Ethernet.

100 Mb/s Ethernet.

1000 Mb/s Ethernet .

There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates.

10. Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.

The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

Page 2 of 10

11. Which of the following best describes a hub?

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

12. What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame with unknown source and destination MAC addresses?

The frame is silently discarded.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is discarded.

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports except the receiving port.

The source and destination MAC addresses are saved in the MAC FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports.

13. What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

14. What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

10.2.3.2

10.2.3.1

192.168.2.0

10.1.1.1

15. Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

Well known ports are used by TCP and UD

Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IAN

Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UD

Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IAN

Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

16. Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

A string of consecutive 1's.

A string of consecutive 0's.

A string of alternating 10's.

The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary representation.

17. What is the function of Layer 2?

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them.

Layer 2 is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages.

Layer 2 is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

18. Which is the public AS in the diagram?

65001

65003

2002

All of the above.

None of the above.

19. Which statement best describes an SDP?

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SD

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SD

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SD

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SD

20. What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

VLAN tag.

IP Header.

Priority Value.

Page 3 of 10

21. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet protocol layer?

It provides a unique addressing scheme to identify hosts.

It provides a user interface to the network.

It uses routing protocols for path determination.

It provides end-to-end forwarding of datagrams.

22. What is the purpose of a multicast address?

To provide an address that refers to all devices in a network.

To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

To provide an address that refers to a group of devices with the same IP address in different Layer 2 networks.

To provide an address that refers to a single device in a network.

23. Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for connectionless data service?

AAL1

AAL2

AAL3/4

AAL5

24. What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in a Nokia 7750 router?

The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MD

The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IO

The IP datagram is passed to the IO

A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

25. How does address summarization reduce the routing table size?

By allowing a block of routes to be represented by one route.

By only keeping best routes in the routing table.

By rejecting duplicate route advertisements.

By not advertising directly connected routes.

26. Which of the following statements best characterize Link State Routing? (Choose 2)

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

27. In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated for Control Processors?

28. Which of the following statements about router R3 is TRUE?

Router R3 is the iLER for LSP

Router R3 is the eLER for LSP

Router R is an LSR for both LSP A and LSP

Router R3 is LSR for LSP A and an LER for LSP

29. What type of MAC address is ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff?

Unicast

Multicast

Broadcast

Anycast

30. Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

Multiple ingress IP filters can be used on a single interface.

An IP filter can be applied to the management port.

The same IP filter can be used on multiple interfaces.

Only one IP filter can be defined per router.

Page 4 of 10

31. What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

To select from routes with different next-hops.

To select from routes with different costs.

To select from routes learned from different routing protocols.

To select from routes with different prefixes.

32. Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose 2)

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

33. Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol? Choose two.

OSPF is a link state protocol with fast convergence.

OSPF supports hierarchy with multiple areas.

The default metric for OSPF is hop count.

OSPF does not support VLS

OSPF supports neighbor authentication.

34. Which statement describes the primary purpose of TCP?

To establish reliable communication for the application services layer.

To provide low overhead communication for the application services layer.

To route IP packets for the application services layer.

To transmit packets over the physical infrastructure.

35. Which of the following statements is FALSE when describing a Virtual Private LAN Service?

A VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be dropped.

MAC addresses are maintained in a MAC address forwarding database (FDB).

36. Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

Source port.

Sequence number.

Acknowledgement number.

Window size.

37. Which of the following IP header fields defines the way packets should be queued?

Type of Service

Identification

Flags

Protocol

38. How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks where as 802.3 was designed for point-to-point networks.

Ethernet II identifies its payload type where as 802.3 indicates the frame length.

Ethernet II identifies its frame length while 802.3 indicates the payload type.

Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol.

39. Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

Support for IPv6.

Support for PO

Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 S

Support for IS-IS

40. Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

Responds in real time to network failures.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

Page 5 of 10

41. How many subnets and host addresses are obtained by subnetting network 201.148.26.0/24 using a /26 subnet mask?

4 subnets, 64 hosts per subnet

8 subnets, 32 hosts per subnet

4 subnets, 62 hosts per subnet

8 subnets, 30 hosts per subnet

42. Network 201.148.104.0/21 is subnetted using a /23 mask.

How many subnets and host addresses per subnet will be obtained with this mask?

2 subnets, 1022 hosts

4 subnets, 510 hosts

2 subnets, 2048 hosts

4 subnets, 512 hosts

43. What are some of the characteristics of BGP? Choose three

BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

BGP routing is based on distance vector.

BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

44. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding IP-filters? (Choose 2)

IP-filters may be applied on interface ingress, egress, or both.

Multiple IP-filters can be applied in each direction.

An IP-filter may only be applied to a single interface if the scope is set to template.

An IP-filter may have multiple match criteria per entry.

The default-action of an IP-filter is always drop.

45. An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram.

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

46. You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that supports scalability, fast convergence and VLSM.

Which routing protocol would best serve your needs?

RIPv1.

RIPv2.

OSP

Static routes.

47. Host A receives a TCP SYN/ACK segment.

What does this signify?

Host A has received a request to establish a TCP session.

Host A has received a request to close a TCP session

A TCP session is now established to host

The TCP session has been terminated due to a timeout.

48. Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?

Provide a connectionless delivery service.

Provide a connection oriented delivery service.

Provide an unreliable transmission service.

Provide a reliable transmission service.

49. What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

A string of 1s

A string of 0s

A string of alternating 10s

There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.

50. What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?

An Internet content provider

An Internet service provider

An enterprise

A regional Internet registry

Page 6 of 10

51. On the Nokia 7750 SR, which key displays all command options and their descriptions?

Tab

Space bar

Return

52. Which of the following tasks can be performed in the boot options file (BOF)?

Specifying authorization information to control access to the router.

Defining an IP address for the management port.

Provisioning the IOM cards.

Setting the date and time for the system.

53. How many of the front access card slots of the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router are dedicated for redundant common equipment?

54. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a VPWS service?

VPWS is a point-to-multipoint service.

VPWS requires MAC learning in order to forward frames to the correct destination

A Spanning Tree Protocol must be enabled when deploying a VPW

VPWS treats multicast traffic similar to unicast traffic.

55. Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)

Number of subnetworks currently required.

Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

Future network growth requirements.

Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

Class of the network address to be used for the network.

56. Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

57. With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)

17.23.119.63

87.99.12.159

95.11.22.93

192.11.25.87

58. Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

59. What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to the same switch.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect the VLANs.

60. An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram.

How many collision domains are on this LAN?

Page 7 of 10

61. How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LS

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

LDP follows the path chosen by the IG

62. Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

Preference

Metric

Dest prefix

Next-hop

Cost

63. A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets.

What subnet mask should be used?

255.255.0.0

255.255.128.0

255.255.224.0

255.255.254.0

64. What types of addresses are part of encapsulation at the transport layer?

Source and destination MAC addresses

Source and destination IP addresses

Source and destination port numbers

Source and destination email addresses

65. Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR? Choose two.

VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

66. Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose 2)

OSPF

BGP

500

IS-IS

Ethernet

67. In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

An MPLS network with multiple LSPs to the same LE

An OSPF network with equal cost multiple paths.

A SONET network with a ring topology.

An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running ST

68. Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added another:

Layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

Class to the classful addressing system.

16-bit number to accompany the IP address.

4,294,967,296 addresses to the IP address space.

69. Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

Routers know the entire network topology.

Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

70. A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:

IP routing.

IP protocol.

IP encapsulation.

IP tunneling.

Page 8 of 10

71. As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

Host A and B will generate a jam signal.

Listening hosts will request retransmission.

Host A or B will retry the transmission.

A back-off timer is started by Host A or

72. What is the next-hop for network 172.16.2.0/24 installed in router 1's routing table?

10.10.10.0

10.10.10.1

10.10.10.2

10.10.10.3

73. Which of the following statements about packet forwarding is FALSE?

The router consults the forwarding table on the ingress IO

The router looks for a longest match to the destination IP address.

The router resolves the next-hop address of the matching route to a physical interface.

If there is no match in the forwarding table, the router sends a “No route to destination” notification.

74. When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for itself, it then:

Estimates the round trip-time.

Generates an echo reply.

Calculates the data loss statistics.

Verifies the data field of the message.

75. What must occur before a LAG becomes operational?

There must be multiple ports assigned to the LA

All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same speed and duplex settings.

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LA

The duplex setting on all the ports must be forced to half.

Auto-negotiation must be set to limited or disabled on at least one member port.

76. What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

77. The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask.

How many subnets and host addresses will be obtained with this mask?

4 subnets, 64 hosts

64 subnets, 4 hosts

4 subnets, 62 hosts

64 subnets, 2 hosts

6 subnets, 30 hosts

78. How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.

A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.

A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

79. Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

172.16.224.255/18

255.255.255.255/32

224.1.2.1/8

192.168.24.59/30

80. Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose 3)

A sequence of label actions from one LER to another LER represents a logical tunnel known as an LS

MPLS labels must be dynamically signaled.

Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network.

MPLS labels may be dynamically signaled or statically assigned by the service provider.

Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router.

Page 9 of 10

81. What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?

Stop transmitting.

Terminate the TCP session.

Send the next segment.

Retransmit the previous segment.

82. Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

116.14.17.16

116.14.17.31

116.14.17.192

116.14.17.189

83. Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

All the above.

84. Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1s for the host address?

Unicast address.

Broadcast address.

Multicast address.

Anycast address.

85. Which of the following ports can be used to access a Nokia 7750 SR that has not been configured?

CPM management Ethernet port

CPM console serial port

Port 1/1/1

Any port on an installed MDA

86. Which of the following protocols is used to exchange routes between routers R1 and R2, and between routers R4 and R5?

RIPv2

IS-IS

OSPF

BGP

87. What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for transmission?

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s.

88. Which of the following describes the Nokia 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric.

89. Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate the number of segments it can receive?

Checksum

SYN

Destination port

Window size

MTU

90. Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

Page 10 of 10

91. Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of a Nokia 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?

CF 1

CF 2

CF 3

Both A and B

92. A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.

True

False

93. In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1.

What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

94. Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix.

Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

Not advertising directly connected routes.

95. Which of the routers is the iLER for LSP B?

Router R1

Router R2

Router R3

Router R4

96. One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

Specify authorization information to control access to the router.

Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.

Initialize the hardware.

Set the date/time for the system.

97. What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

Link bandwidth.

Round trip time.

Hop count.

Route preference.

98. In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1.

What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

99. What operation is performed by an egress Label Edge Router (eLER) when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering the MPLS label.

It swaps the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LS

It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LS

It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

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