Test Online 156-215.81 Dumps Questions to Be Certified

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March 20, 2023

To help prepare for the 156-215.81 exam, you may want to consider using 156-215.81 exam dumps questions. These questions are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of the topics covered on the exam. The more you practice answering 156-215.81 dumps questions, the more comfortable you will become with the exam format and the types of questions you can expect to see. 156-215.81 dumps can help reduce anxiety on exam day and improve your chances of success. Go and test free 156-215.81 exam dumps questions here.

Page 1 of 12

1. Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Five

Two

Three

Four

2. What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

3. Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

There is Load Sharing solution set up

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

There is High Availability solution set up

4. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

Is configured using cpconfig

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

5. Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Accept all encrypted traffic

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Specific VPN Communities

6. Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Anti-Bot

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

Anti-Virus

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

7. Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

8. Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

Networks

Users

Time

Machines

9. What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

10. Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

NAT

Firewall

Global Properties

Object Explorer

Page 2 of 12

11. What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Monitoring the status of processes

Sending and receiving logs

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

Generating and modifying certificates

12. With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

The IP address of the source machine.

The end user credentials.

The host portion of the UR

13. Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

IPS blade

IPSEC VPN Blade

Identity Awareness Blade

Firewall Blade

14. True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

15. Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

16. Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

SmartProvisioning

SmartLicense

SmartUpdate

Deployment Agent

17. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

18. In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Different computers or appliances.

The same computer or appliance.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

19. Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

SecurID

LDAP

NT domain

SMTP

20. You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway.

How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Page 3 of 12

21. What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole’s tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

The Global one also saves and published the session before installation.

The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.

The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.

The second one pre-select the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

22. Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

ThreatWiki

Whitelist Files

AppWiki

IPS Protections

23. SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

Matching a log against each event definition

Create an event candidate

Matching a log against local exclusions

Matching a log against global exclusions

24. Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Cplic verify license

Cplic print

Cplic show

Cplic license

25. Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Status monitoring

Policy configuration

Certificate authority

Address translation

26. To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

a routing table

awareness of the network topology

a Demilitarized Zone

a Security Policy install

27. You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.

How can you fix this?

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

28. Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

On the Policy Package

On each Security Gateway

On the Policy layer

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

29. Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

30. URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Control Bandwidth issues

Control Data Security

Improve organizational security

Decrease legal liability

Page 4 of 12

31. Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility.

Which statement is true?

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NA

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NA

32. When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

33. How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

One

Three

Two

Infinite

34. Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Log server; Security Gateway

Log server; security management server

Security management server; Security Gateway

Security Gateways; log server

35. Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

License and Update

Package Repository and Licenses

Update and License & Contract

License & Contract and Package Repository

36. Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

fwaccel stat

fwaccel stats

fw ctl templates Cd

37. Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

38. When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Log, send snmp trap, email

Drop packet, alert, none

Log, alert, none

Log, allow packets, email

39. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

CPM

HTTPS

FWD

CPD

40. Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

IPS

Application Control and URL Filtering

Threat Emulation

Anti-virus

Page 5 of 12

41. R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Windows only

Gaia only

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

SecurePlatform only

42. Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

43. A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Allow security audits.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

Monitor sequence activity.

Block suspicious activity.

44. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

45. Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

Users can share identities with other users

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

46. Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Centos Linux

Gaia embedded

Gaia

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

47. Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

admin

superuser

monitor

altuser

48. Which command shows the installed licenses?

cplic print

print cplic

fwlic print

show licenses

49. In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

Publish changes

Save changes

Install policy

Install database

50. Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Accept all encrypted traffic

Specific VPN Communities

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Page 6 of 12

51. What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

52. Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

53. Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Capsule Docs

Capsule Cloud

Capsule Enterprise

Capsule Workspace

54. Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Security Gateway Contract file

Service Contract file

License Management file

License Contract file

55. In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Hide; source

Static; source

Simple; source

Hide; destination

56. Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

All-in-one (stand-alone)

Log server

SmartEvent

Multi-domain management server

57. Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

58. What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

A host route to route to the destination IP

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

59. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

SmartConsole

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

Security Management Server

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

60. Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Incoming

Internal

External

Outgoing

Page 7 of 12

61. Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

AD Query

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

RADIUS and Account Logon

62. One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

63. Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

WebU

or SmartUpdate

SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

SmartConsole, WebU

or CLI

64. If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

65. What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Endpoint Security Client

Full Agent

Light Agent

System Agent

66. Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Formal; corporate

Local; formal

Local; central

Central; local

67. 1.Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Command line interface; WebUI

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

WebUI; Gaia Interface

GaiaUI; command line interface

68. What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

69. Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Log

Full Log

Detailed Log

Extended Log

70. Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

User and objects databases

Network databases

SmartConsole databases

User databases

Page 8 of 12

71. What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?

Destination and Hide

Hide and Static

Static and Source

Source and Destination

72. A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

73. What command would show the API server status?

cpm status

api restart

api status

show api status

74. Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

SecureID

Radius

DynamicID

TACACS

75. When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

76. When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Log, Alert, None

Log, Allow Packets, Email

Drop Packet, Alert, None

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

77. What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

78. Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Access Control

Threat Emulation

Threat Prevention

QoS

79. After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

80. Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Central

Corporate

Local

Formal

Page 9 of 12

81. When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Distributed

Standalone

Bridge

82. Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Antivirus

Data Loss Prevention

NAT

Application Control

83. What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

84. Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

Application Control

Data Awareness

Identity Awareness

Threat Emulation

85. Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

86. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

fw ctl miltik pq enable

87. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Accounting

Suppression

Accounting/Suppression

Accounting/Extended

88. Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

The Gaia operating system only.

89. Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Microsoft Publisher

JSON

Microsoft Word

RC4 Encryption

90. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Symmetric routing

Failovers

Asymmetric routing

Anti-Spoofing

Page 10 of 12

91. A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways.

What is considered part of the zone?

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

92. You are going to perform a major upgrade.

Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

backup

logswitch

Database Revision

snapshot

93. Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Pentagon, star, and combination

Star, octagon, and combination

Combined and star

Meshed, star, and combination

94. Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Word Document (docx)

Comma Separated Value (csv)

Portable Document Format (pdf)

Text (txt)

95. What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique

address?

Source

Static

Hide

Destination

96. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

97. Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

User Center

Package repository

Download Center Web site

License and Contract repository

98. URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time.

What is the name of that technology?

WebCheck

UserCheck

Harmony Endpoint

URL categorization

99. Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Object Browser

Object Editor

Object Navigator

Object Explorer

100. Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10.

What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

CPUSE online upgrade

CPUSE offline upgrade

SmartUpdate upgrade

Page 11 of 12

101. Choose what BEST describes a Session

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

102. Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

No, only one can be connected

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

Yes, but only one has the right to write

103. When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

104. Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

All-in-one (stand-alone)

CloudGuard

Distributed

Bridge Mode

105. When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Distributed

Standalone

Bridge Mode

Targeted

106. Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

675, 389

389, 636

636, 290

290, 675

107. When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Access Role

User Group

SmartDirectory Group

Group Template

108. The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to

detect and block malware.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

Next Generation Threat Emulation

Next Generation Threat Extraction

Next Generation Firewall

109. Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

110. Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

I have changed this rule

Someone else has changed this rule

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Page 12 of 12

111. Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

112. You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

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