200-201 Online Dumps Boost Your Career

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January 9, 2024

The 200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) certification exam is challenging, and it's natural to feel anxious and nervous before taking the exam. Practicing with 200-201 dumps questions can help alleviate this anxiety by boosting your confidence. As you practice and become more familiar with the exam format and content, you'll feel more confident in your abilities, which can help you perform better on the actual 200-201 exam. Practicing with 200-201 questions can increase your chances of success in the certification exam. Practice free Cisco 200-201 exam dumps below.

Page 1 of 10

1. Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker scanned the server using Nmap.

What did the attacker obtain from this scan?

Identified a firewall device preventing the pert state from being returned.

Identified open SMB ports on the server

Gathered information on processes running on the server

Gathered a list of Active Directory users

2. Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

statistical data

alert data

transaction data

metadata

3. Which metric is used to capture the level of access needed to launch a successful attack?

privileges required

user interaction

attack complexity

attack vector

4. A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information.

What is the threat actor in this incident?

company assets that are threatened

customer assets that are threatened

perpetrators of the attack

victims of the attack

5. An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface.

What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?

tagged protocols being used on the network

all firewall alerts and resulting mitigations

tagged ports being used on the network

all information and data within the datagram

6. What is the difference between the rule-based detection when compared to behavioral detection?

Rule-Based detection is searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, while behavioral is identifying per signature.

Rule-Based systems have established patterns that do not change with new data, while behavioral changes.

Behavioral systems are predefined patterns from hundreds of users, while Rule-Based only flags potentially abnormal patterns using signatures.

Behavioral systems find sequences that match a particular attack signature, while Rule-Based identifies potential attacks.

7. An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load.

What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.

Run "ps -ef" to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map required processes to find the gap.

8. When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?

full packet capture

NetFlow data

session data

firewall logs

9. How does a certificate authority impact security?

It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.

10. Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

secure boot

load balancing

increased audit log levels

restricting USB ports

full packet captures at the endpoint

Page 2 of 10

11. According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

swap files

temporary files

dump files

free space

12. Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

ARP flood

DNS amplification

ARP poisoning

DNS tunneling

13. What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

14. Refer to the exhibit.

Which attack is being attempted against a web application?

SQL injection

man-in-the-middle

command injection

denial of service

15. Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server, i

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

Scan open services and ports on a server.

16. Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

Research data on a specific vulnerability

17. What are two denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two)

port scan

SYN flood

man-in-the-middle

phishing

teardrop

18. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is reviewing a Cuckoo report of a file.

What must the engineer interpret from the report?

The file will appear legitimate by evading signature-based detection.

The file will not execute its behavior in a sandbox environment to avoid detection.

The file will insert itself into an application and execute when the application is run.

The file will monitor user activity and send the information to an outside source.

19. Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion?

SQL injection

man-in-the-middle

bluesnarfing

denial-of-service

20. Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

detection and analysis

post-incident activity

vulnerability management

risk assessment

vulnerability scoring

Page 3 of 10

21. What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

22. What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

categorizing critical assets within the organization

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

23. Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server.

Which display filters should the analyst use to filter the FTP traffic?

dstport == FTP

tcp.port==21

tcpport = FTP

dstport = 21

24. What is the difference between a threat and an exploit?

A threat is a result of utilizing flow in a system, and an exploit is a result of gaining control over the system.

A threat is a potential attack on an asset and an exploit takes advantage of the vulnerability of the asset

An exploit is an attack vector, and a threat is a potential path the attack must go through.

An exploit is an attack path, and a threat represents a potential vulnerability

25. Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

Divide the network into parts

Split packets into pieces.

Reduce the load on network devices.

Implement the patch management process

26. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of log is displayed?

IDS

proxy

NetFlow

sys

27. Refer to the exhibit.

A suspicious IP address is tagged by Threat Intelligence as a brute-force attempt source After the attacker produces many of failed login entries, it successfully compromises the account.

Which stakeholder is responsible for the incident response detection step?

employee 5

employee 3

employee 4

employee 2

28. How does certificate authority impact a security system?

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

29. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

30. What is an example of social engineering attacks?

receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an attachment from someone in the same company

receiving an email from human resources requesting a visit to their secure website to update contact information

sending a verbal request to an administrator who knows how to change an account password

receiving an invitation to the department’s weekly WebEx meeting

Page 4 of 10

31. Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address 192.168.20.232?

^ (?:[0-9]{1,3}.){3}[0-9]{1,3}

^ (?:[0-9]f1,3}.){1,4}

^ (?:[0-9]{1,3}.)'

^ ([0-9]-{3})

32. An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network.

What is the impact of this traffic?

ransomware communicating after infection

users downloading copyrighted content

data exfiltration

user circumvention of the firewall

33. What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

It lowers maintenance costs

It provides a centralized platform

It collects and detects all traffic locally

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

34. Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

social engineering

session hijacking

evasion

phishing

35. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

36. Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?

resource exhaustion

tunneling

traffic fragmentation

timing attack

37. Refer to the exhibit.

Which event is occurring?

A binary named "submit" is running on VM cuckoo1.

A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

38. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is analyzing a PCAP file after a recent breach An engineer identified that the attacker used an aggressive ARP scan to scan the hosts and found web and SSH servers. Further analysis showed several SSH Server Banner and Key Exchange Initiations. The engineer cannot see the exact data being transmitted over an encrypted channel and cannot identify how the attacker gained access.

How did the attacker gain access?

by using the buffer overflow in the URL catcher feature for SSH

by using an SSH Tectia Server vulnerability to enable host-based authentication

by using an SSH vulnerability to silently redirect connections to the local host

by using brute force on the SSH service to gain access

39. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

There are three active data exfiltration alerts.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

40. At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

internet

transport

application

data link

Page 5 of 10

41. Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded.

Which action resolves the issue?

Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention penod.

Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 G

Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 T

Use NTFS partition for log file containment

42. Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

[a−z]+

[^a−z]+

a−z+

a*z+

43. What is the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?

least privilege

need to know

integrity validation

due diligence

44. What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

central key management server

web of trust

trusted certificate authorities

registration authority data

45. Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

denial of service

ARP cache poisoning

DHCP snooping

command and control

46. What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?

DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.

RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.

RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.

DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups

47. Refer to the exhibit.

Which application-level protocol is being targeted?

HTTPS

FTP

HTTP

TCP

48. An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168.1.0/24 range without triggering intrusive portscan alerts on the IDS device using Nmap.

Which command will accomplish this goal?

nmap --top-ports 192.168.1.0/24

nmap CsP 192.168.1.0/24

nmap -sL 192.168.1.0/24

nmap -sV 192.168.1.0/24

49. Which HTTP header field is used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?

referrer

host

user-agent

accept-language

50. An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist. Further analysis shows that the threat actor connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data. The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?

list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

external USB device

receptionist and the actions performed

stolen data and its criticality assessment

Page 6 of 10

51. An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data.

Which two types of data must be identified'? (Choose two.)

SOX

PII

PHI

PCI

52. Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?

time it takes to detect the incident

time it takes to assess the risks of the incident

probability of outage caused by the incident

probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident

53. What is sliding window anomaly detection?

Detect changes in operations and management processes.

Identify uncommon patterns that do not fit usual behavior.

Define response times for requests for owned applications.

Apply lowest privilege/permission level to software

54. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?

insert TCP subdissectors

extract a file from a packet capture

disable TCP streams

unfragment TCP

55. What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network?

Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic

Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic

Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies

Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic

56. What is threat hunting?

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

57. A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver.

Which event category is described?

reconnaissance

action on objectives

installation

exploitation

58. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the message indicate?

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

59. Which list identifies the information that the client sends to the server in the negotiation phase of the TLS handshake?

ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

ClientStart, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

ClientHello, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

60. A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware. Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system.

Which security concepts are present in this scenario?

exploit and patching

risk and evidence

analysis and remediation

vulnerability and threat

Page 7 of 10

61. Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

false negative

true positive

true negative

false positive

62. While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header.

Which technology makes this behavior possible?

encapsulation

TOR

tunneling

NAT

63. A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor.

Which type of evidence is this?

best evidence

prima facie evidence

indirect evidence

physical evidence

64. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

65. What does an attacker use to determine which network ports are listening on a potential target device?

man-in-the-middle

port scanning

SQL injection

ping sweep

66. What is a description of a social engineering attack?

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

67. What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

68. What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access?

date of birth

driver's license number

gender

zip code

69. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the security concept on the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

70. What is a comparison between rule-based and statistical detection?

Statistical is based on measured data while rule-based uses the evaluated probability approach.

Rule-based Is based on assumptions and statistical uses data Known beforehand.

Rule-based uses data known beforehand and statistical is based on assumptions.

Statistical uses the probability approach while rule-based Is based on measured data.

Page 8 of 10

71. According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a new malware called Egregor was introduced and used in many attacks. Distnbution of Egregor is pnmanly through a Cobalt Strike that has been installed on victim's workstations using RDP exploits Malware exfiltrates the victim's data to a command and control server. The data is used to force victims pay or lose it by publicly releasing it.

Which type of attack is described?

malware attack

ransomware attack

whale-phishing

insider threat

72. Which statement describes indicators of attack?

internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.

Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mall A

Critical patches are missing.

A malicious file is detected by the AV software.

73. An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred.

According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

Recovery

Detection

Eradication

Analysis

74. What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

physical location of an object in memory

set of pages that reside in the physical memory

system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

75. Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports?

statistical data

session data

connectivity data

alert data

76. A member of the SOC team is checking the dashboard provided by the Cisco Firepower Manager for further Isolation actions.

According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of incident response is this action?

Cost-incident activity phase

Preparation phase

Selection and analyze phase

The radiation and recovery phase

77. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

SQL injection

cross-site scripting

cross-site request forgery

command injection

78. An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is stored in CDFS format.

What type of evidence is this file?

data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

data from a CD copied using Linux system

data from a DVD copied using Windows system

data from a CD copied using Windows

79. An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

Base64 encoding

TLS encryption

SHA-256 hashing

ROT13 encryption

80. Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to compromise a network with an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords and no username?

SQL injection

dictionary

replay

cross-site scripting

Page 9 of 10

81. How can TOR impact data visibility inside an organization?

increases data integrity

increases security

decreases visibility

no impact

82. A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious.

In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

Vaporization

Delivery

reconnaissance

Action on objectives

83. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the default user agent is present in the headers of requests and data being transmitted.

What is occurring?

indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests

garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports

indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text

cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content

84. What is an incident response plan?

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

85. What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems?

SOAR ingests numerous types of logs and event data infrastructure components and SIEM can fetch data from endpoint security software and external threat intelligence feeds

SOAR collects and stores security data at a central point and then converts it into actionable intelligence, and SIEM enables SOC teams to automate and orchestrate manual tasks

SIEM raises alerts in the event of detecting any suspicious activity, and SOAR automates investigation path workflows and reduces time spent on alerts

SIEM combines data collecting, standardization, case management, and analytics for a defense-in-depth concept, and SOAR collects security data antivirus logs, firewall logs, and hashes of downloaded files

86. Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

87. Refer to the exhibit.

Which frame numbers contain a file that is extractable via TCP stream within Wireshark?

7,14, and 21

7 and 21

14,16,18, and 19

7 to 21

88. Which option describes indicators of attack?

spam emails on an employee workstation

virus detection by the AV software

blocked phishing attempt on a company

malware reinfection within a few minutes of removal

89. What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

90. A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders

After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

post-incident activity

detection and analysis

preparation

containment, eradication, and recovery

Page 10 of 10

91. A cyberattacker notices a security flaw in a software that a company is using They decide to tailor a specific worm to exploit this flaw and extract saved passwords from the software.

To which category of the Cyber Kill Cham model does this event belong?

reconnaissance

delivery

weaponization

exploitation

92. Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology produced the log?

antivirus

IPS/IDS

proxy

firewall

93. What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

privilege escalation

DDoS attack

phishing

man-in-the-middle

pharming

94. An engineer configured regular expression “.”.(pd][Oo][Cc)|[Xx][LI][Ss]|[Pp][Pp][Tt]) HTTP/1 .[01]" on Cisco ASA firewall.

What does this regular expression do?

It captures documents in an HTTP network session.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .pdf files in HTTP v1.0 and v1.1.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .ppt files extensions in HTTP v1.0.

It captures Word, Excel, and PowerPoint files in HTTPv1.0 and v1.1.

95. Which security technology guarantees the integrity and authenticity of all messages transferred to and from a web application?

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

SSL Certificate

Tunneling

VPN

96. Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

Redefine signature rules.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

97. 1.Which event is user interaction?

gaining root access

executing remote code

reading and writing file permission

opening a malicious file

98. A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:

If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.

If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.

Which component results from this operation?

parent directory name of a file pathname

process spawn scheduled

macros for managing CPU sets

new process created by parent process

99. A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port scanning activity to main HR database servers from one of the HR endpoints via Cisco StealthWatch.

What are the two next steps of the SOC team according to the NISTSP800-61 incident handling process? (Choose two)

Isolate affected endpoints and take disk images for analysis

Provide security awareness training to HR managers and employees

Block connection to this C&C server on the perimeter next-generation firewall

Update antivirus signature databases on affected endpoints to block connections to C&C

Detect the attack vector and analyze C&C connections

100. Endpoint logs indicate that a machine has obtained an unusual gateway address and unusual DNS

servers via DHCP.

Which type of attack is occurring?

command injection

man in the middle attack

evasion methods

phishing

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