Pass CCAK Exam to Get ISACA Certification

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October 30, 2024

The CCAK exam is hot, and passing it requires a deep understanding of ISACA solutions. Practicing with ISACA CCAK dumps questions can help you reinforce your knowledge and increase your chances of passing the exam. CCAK dumps are available to help you prepare for the CCAK exam. Using CCAK exam dumps questions is one effective way to supplement your study plan and increase your chances of success on exam day. Test free Cloud Security Alliance CCAK exam dumps below.

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1. Which of the following enables auditors to conduct gap analyses of what a cloud service provider offers versus what the customer requires?

Using a standardized control framework

The experience gained over the years

Understanding the customer risk profile

The as-is and to-be enterprise architecture (EA

2. Which of the following are independent assessment organizations that verify cloud providers' security implementations and provide the overall risk posture of a cloud environment for a FedRAMP security authorization decision?

FedRAMP Program Management Office (FedRAMP PMO)

American Association of Laboratory Accreditation (A2LA)

Third-party Assessment Organizations (3PAOs)

FedRAMP Joint Authorization Boards (JABs)

3. One of the control specifications in the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) states that "independent reviews and assessments shall be performed at least annually to ensure that the organization addresses nonconformities of established policies, standards, procedures, and compliance obligation."

Which of the following controls under the Audit Assurance and Compliance domain does this match to?

Information system and regulatory mapping

GDPR auditing

Audit planning

Independent audits

4. Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.

Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.

The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements.

Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.

5. Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?

Processes and systems to be audited

Updated audit work program

Documentation criteria for the audit evidence

Testing procedure to be performed

6. What aspect of Software as a Service (SaaS) functionality and operations would the cloud customer be responsible for and should be audited?

Access controls

Vulnerability management

Patching

Source code reviews

7. From the perspective of a senior cloud security audit practitioner in an organization with a mature security program and cloud adoption, which of the following statements BEST describes the DevSecOps concept?

Process of security integration using automation in software development

Operational framework that promotes software consistency through automation

Development standards for addressing integration, testing, and deployment issues

Making software development simpler, faster, and easier using automation

8. When performing audits in relation to business continuity management and operational resilience strategy, what would be the MOST critical aspect to audit in relation to the strategy of the cloud customer that should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider?

Validate whether the strategy covers all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption.

Validate whether the strategy is developed by both cloud service providers and cloud service consumers within the acceptable limits of their risk appetite.

Validate whether the strategy covers all activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, aligned to the risk appetite of the organization including the invocation of continuity plans and crisis management capabilities.

9. In audit parlance, what is meant by "management representation"?

A person or group of persons representing executive management during audits

A mechanism to represent organizational structure

A project management technique to demonstrate management's involvement in key project stages

Statements made by management in response to specific inquiries

10. Which industry organization offers both security controls and cloud-relevant benchmarking?

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)

SANS Institute

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Center for Internet Security (CIS)

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11. What should be the control audit frequency for an organization's business continuity management and operational resilience strategy?

Annually

Biannually

Quarterly

Monthly

12. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure effective cloud application controls are maintained in an organization?

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Third-party vendor involvement

Exception reporting

Application team internal review

13. An organization is using the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to extend its IT governance in the cloud.

Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to take advantage of the supplier relationship feature?

Filter out only those controls directly influenced by contractual agreements.

Leverage this feature to enable the adoption of the Shared Responsibility Model.

Filter out only those controls having a direct impact on current terms of service (TOS) and service level agreement (SLA).

Leverage this feature to enable a smarter selection of the next cloud provider.

14. To ensure that cloud audit resources deliver the best value to the organization, the FIRST step is to:

schedule the audits and monitor the time spent on each audit.

monitor progress of audits and initiate cost control measures.

develop a cloud audit plan on the basis of a detailed risk assessment.

train the cloud audit staff on current technology used in the organization.

15. What is an advantage of using dynamic application security testing (DAST) over static application security testing (SAST) methodology?

DAST is slower but thorough.

Unlike SAST, DAST is a black box and programming language agnostic.

DAST can dynamically integrate with most continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) tools.

DAST delivers more false positives than SAST

16. Which of the following is MOST useful for an auditor to review when seeking visibility into the cloud supply chain for a newly acquired Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

SaaS provider contract

Payments made by the service owner

SaaS vendor white papers

Cloud compliance obligations register

17. The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:

GDPR CoC certification.

GB/T 22080-2008.

SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.

ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.

18. An auditor wants to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization.

Which of the following can BEST help to gain the required information?

ISAE 3402 report

ISO/IEC 27001 certification

SOC1 Type 1 report

SOC2 Type 2 report

19. After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data.

In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?

As an integrity breach

As an availability breach

As a confidentiality breach

As a control breach

20. What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?

Enterprise cloud strategy and policy

Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers

Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments

Inventory of third-party attestation reports

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21. When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.

Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.

Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.

Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the organization.

22. Which of the following is a KEY benefit of using the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)?

CCM utilizes an ITIL framework to define the capabilities needed to manage the IT services and security services.

CCM maps to existing security standards, best practices, and regulations.

CCM uses a specific control for Infrastructure as a Service (laaS).

CCM V4 is an improved version from CCM V3.0.1.

23. During the planning phase of a cloud audit, the PRIMARY goal of a cloud auditor is to:

specify appropriate tests.

address audit objectives.

minimize audit resources.

collect sufficient evidence.

24. An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community.

Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?

Management of the organization being audited

Public

Shareholders and interested parties

Cloud service provider

25. In a situation where duties related to cloud risk management and control are split between an organization and its cloud service providers, which of the following would BEST help to ensure a coordinated approach to risk and control processes?

Establishing a joint security operations center

Automating reporting of risk and control compliance

Co-locating compliance management specialists

Maintaining a centralized risk and controls dashboard

26. Which of the following approaches encompasses social engineering of staff, bypassing of physical access controls, and penetration testing?

Red team

Blue team

White box

Gray box

27. Which of the following methods can be used by a cloud service provider with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information?

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

Independent auditor report

First-party audit

Industry certifications

28. Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders

Establishing ownership and accountability

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments

29. If a customer management interface is compromised over the public Internet, it can lead to:

incomplete wiping of the data.

computing and data compromise for customers.

ease of acquisition of cloud services.

access to the RAM of neighboring cloud computers.

30. Which plan guides an organization on how to react to a security incident that might occur on the organization's systems, or that might be affecting one of its service providers?

Incident response plan

Security incident plan

Unexpected event plan

Emergency incident plan

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31. An auditor is reviewing an organization’s virtual machines (VMs) hosted in the cloud. The organization utilizes a configuration management (CM) tool to enforce password policies on its VMs.

Which of the following is the BEST approach for the auditor to use to review the operating effectiveness of the password requirement?

The auditor should not rely on the CM tool and its settings, and for thoroughness should review the password configuration on the set of sample VMs.

Review the relevant configuration settings on the CM tool and check whether the CM tool agents are operating effectively on the sample VMs.

As it is an automated environment, reviewing the relevant configuration settings on the CM tool would be sufficient.

Review the incident records for any incidents relating to brute force attacks or password compromise in the last 12 months and investigate whether the root cause of the incidents was due to in appropriate password policy configured on the VMs.

32. Visibility to which of the following would give an auditor the BEST view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) deployments?

Source code within build scripts

Output from threat modeling exercises

Service level agreements (SLAs)

Results from automated testing

33. Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2

ISO 27001

34. A dot release of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) indicates:

A. a revision of the CCM domain structure.

B. a technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is smaller than 10% compared to the previous full release.

C. the introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls.

D. technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release.

35. An independent contractor is assessing the security maturity of a Software as a Service (SaaS) company against industry standards. The SaaS company has developed and hosted all its products using the cloud services provided by a third-party cloud service provider.

What is the optimal and most efficient mechanism to assess the controls provider is responsible for?

Review the provider's published questionnaires.

Review third-party audit reports.

Directly audit the provider.

Send a supplier questionnaire to the provider.

36. Which of the following can be used to determine whether access keys are stored in the source code or any other configuration files during development?

Static code review

Dynamic code review

Vulnerability scanning

Credential scanning

37. The FINAL decision to include a material finding in a cloud audit report should be made by the:

auditee's senior management.

organization's chief executive officer (CEO).

cloud auditor.

organization's chief information security officer (CISO)

38. Which of the following metrics are frequently immature?

Metrics around specific Software as a Service (SaaS) application services

Metrics around Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) computing environments

Metrics around Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) storage and network environments

Metrics around Platform as a Service (PaaS) development environments

39. Which of the following aspects of risk management involves identifying the potential reputational and financial harm when an incident occurs?

Likelihood

Mitigation

Residual risk

Impact analysis

40. The Cloud Computing Compliance Controls Catalogue (C5) framework is maintained by which of the following agencies?

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

National Cybersecurity Agency of France (ANSSI) / Agency national de la securite des systems information (ANSSI)

Federal Office for Information Security in Germany (BSI) / Bundesamt fur Sicherheit in der Informationstechnik (BSI)

National Security Agency (NSA)

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41. In a multi-level supply chain structure where cloud service provider A relies on other sub cloud services, the provider should ensure that any compliance requirements relevant to the provider are:

passed to the sub cloud service providers based on the sub cloud service providers' geographic location.

passed to the sub cloud service providers.

treated as confidential information and withheld from all sub cloud service providers.

treated as sensitive information and withheld from certain sub cloud service providers.

42. The control domain feature within a Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) represents:

CCM's ability to scan and check Active Directory, LDAP, and x.500 directories for suspicious and/or privileged user accounts.

a logical grouping of security controls addressing the same category of IT risks or information security concerns.

a set of application programming interfaces (APIs) that allows a cloud consumer to restrict the replication area within a well-defined jurisdictional perimeter.

CCM's ability to scan for anomalies in DNS zones in order to detect DNS spoofing, DNS hijacking, DNS cache poisoning, and similar threats.

43. An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.

Which of the following should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider's burden?

The provider can schedule a call with each customer.

The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process.

The provider can answer each customer individually.

The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry

44. Which of the following types of risk is associated specifically with the use of multi-cloud environments in an organization?

Risk of supply chain visibility and validation

Risk of reduced visibility and control

Risk of service reliability and uptime

Risk of unauthorized access to customer and business data

45. When developing a cloud compliance program, what is the PRIMARY reason for a cloud customer

To determine the total cost of the cloud services to be deployed

To confirm whether the compensating controls implemented are sufficient for the cloud services

To determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures

To confirm which vendor will be selected based on compliance with security requirements

46. Which of the following has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers?

BSI IT-basic protection catalogue

Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS)

German IDW PS 951

BSI Criteria Catalogue C5

47. Which of the following MOST enhances the internal stakeholder decision-making process for the remediation of risks identified from an organization's cloud compliance program?

Establishing ownership and accountability

Reporting emerging threats to senior stakeholders

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) for multi-cloud environments

Automating risk monitoring and reporting processes

48. Management planes deployed in cloud environments may pose a risk of potentially allowing access to the entire environment.

Which of the following controls is MOST appropriate for mitigating this risk?

Change management

Regular audits

Access restriction

Increased monitoring

49. Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.

The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.

An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack.

A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database

50. Which of the following is a direct benefit of mapping the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) to other international standards and regulations?

CCM mapping enables cloud service providers and customers alike to streamline their own compliance and security efforts.

CCM mapping entitles cloud service providers to be listed as an approved supplier for tenders and government contracts.

CCM mapping entitles cloud service providers to be certified under the CSA STAR program.

CCM mapping enables an uninterrupted data flow and in particular the export of personal data across different jurisdictions.

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51. The MAIN difference between the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) and the Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) is that:

CCM assesses the presence of controls, whereas CAIQ assesses the overall security of a service.

CCM has 14 domains, whereas CAIQ has 16 domains.

CCM provides a controls framework, whereas CAIQ provides industry-accepted ways to document which security controls exist in Infrastructure as a Service (laaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS) offerings.

CCM has a set of security questions, whereas CAIQ has a set of security controls.

52. The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:

ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.

GB/T 22080-2008.

SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.

GDPR CoC certification.

53. When performing audits in relation to the organizational strategy and governance, what should be requested from the cloud service provider?

Enterprise cloud security strategy

Enterprise cloud strategy and policy

Attestation reports

Policies and procedures

54. Which of the following should a cloud auditor recommend regarding controls for application interfaces and databases to prevent manual or systematic processing errors, corruption of data, or misuse?

Assessment of contractual and regulatory requirements for customer access

Establishment of policies and procedures across multiple system interfaces, jurisdictions, and business functions to prevent improper disclosure, alteration, or destruction

Data input and output integrity routines

Testing in accordance with leading industry standards such as OWASP

55. Which of the following activities is performed outside information security monitoring?

Management review of the information security framework

Monitoring the effectiveness of implemented controls

Collection and review of security events before escalation

Periodic review of risks, vulnerabilities, likelihoods, and threats

56. What aspect of Software as a Service (SaaS) functionality and operations would the cloud customer be responsible for and should be audited?

Source code reviews

Patching

Access controls

Vulnerability management

57. A certification target helps in the formation of a continuous certification framework by incorporating:

the service level objective (SLO) and service qualitative objective (SQO).

the scope description and security attributes to be tested.

the frequency of evaluating security attributes.

CSA STAR level 2 attestation.

58. Controls mapping found in the Scope Applicability column of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) may help organizations to realize cost savings:

by avoiding duplication of efforts in the compliance evaluation and for the eventual control design and implementation.

by implementing layered security, thus reducing the likelihood of data breaches and the associated costs.

by avoiding the need to hire a cloud security specialist to perform the periodic risk assessment exercise.

by avoiding fines for breaching those regulations that impose a controls mapping in order to prove compliance

59. An auditor is assessing a European organization's compliance.

Which regulation is suitable if health information needs to be protected?

GDPR

DPIA

DPA

HIPAA

60. When an organization is using cloud services, the security responsibilities largely vary depending on the service delivery model used, while the accountability for compliance should remain with the:

cloud user.

cloud service provider. 0

cloud customer.

certification authority (CA)

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61. The BEST method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider’s services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through:

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis.

tools selected by the third-party auditor.

SOC 2 Type 2 attestation.

a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs).

62. An auditor examining a cloud service provider's service level agreement (SLA) should be MOST concerned about whether:

the agreement includes any operational matters that are material to the service operations.

the agreement excludes any sourcing and financial matters that are material in meeting the service level agreement (SLA).

the agreement includes any service availability matters that are material to the service operations.

the agreement excludes any operational matters that are material to the service operations

63. Which of the following cloud service models creates a cloud version of a contract template?

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Security as a Service (SecaaS)

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