Cisco 200-301 Exam Questions Simulate Actual 200-301 Exam

1. Refer to Exhibit.





Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network.

Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

2. Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?

3. Refer to the exhibit.





The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch.

What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

4. Refer to Exhibit.





Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

5. Refer to the exhibit.





The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2.

Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

7. Refer to the exhibit.





Router R1 is running three different routing protocols.

Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

8. Refer to the exhibit.





Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

9. Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

10. When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

11. in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

12. What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?

13. After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of

each enterprise router with a local username and password.

Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

14. An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router.

What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

15. Refer to the exhibit.





The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format.

When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

16. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the effect of this configuration?

17. Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

18. Refer to the Exhibit.





A)





B)





C)





D)

19. Refer to the exhibit.





An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1.

Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

20. What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

21. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

22. Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

23. Refer to the exhibit.









R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR.

Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

24. When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

25. Refer to the exhibit.





A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:

• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.

• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.

Which set of configurations must be applied?

A)





B)





C)





D)

26. Refer to the exhibit.





An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet.

Which command set meets the requirement?

27. Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

28. When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

29. Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

30. What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

31. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

32. DRAG DROP

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured.

Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

33. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

34. which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

35. Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

36. The service password-encryption command is entered on a router.

What is the effect of this configuration?

37. Refer to the exhibit.





The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth.

Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

38. Refer to the exhibit.





The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor.

Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)





B)





C)





D)

39. Refer to the exhibit.





The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.





What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

40. Refer to the exhibit.





The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers.

Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

41. Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

42. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

43. Which protocol uses the SSL?

44. DRAG DROP

Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

45. Refer to the exhibit.





A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network.

Which command will accomplish this task?

46. Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

47. Refer to the exhibit.





An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1.

Which access list must be applied?

48. While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

49. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

50. Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

51. What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

52. An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network.

To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

53. An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels.

What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

54. Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

55. How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?

56. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

57. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

58. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

59. Refer to the exhibit.





Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.

Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

60. A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server.

What is the cause of the throughput issue?

61. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

62. Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

63. A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000.

Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

64. Refer to the exhibit.





What is missing from this output for it to be executed?

65. What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

66. PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN.

Which switching concept does this describe?

67. Refer to the exhibit.









Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?

68. What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

69. Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

70. An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests.

Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

71. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

72. What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

73. Refer to the exhibit.





Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r.

What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

74. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

75. A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15.

What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

76. which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

77. Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

78. Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

79. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

80. Refer to the exhibit.





Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

81. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

82. Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

83. What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

84. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

85. A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new

Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024.

Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

86. What is a benefit of VRRP?

87. Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

88. Refer to the Exhibit.





What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?

89. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

90. Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

91. What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

92. Refer to the exhibit.





Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs.

Which command set fulfills the requirement?

93. Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

94. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

95. Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

96. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38.

Where does the router forward the packet?

97. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

98. What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

99. What is a feature of WPA?

100. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

101. When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

102. Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

103. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

104. Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

105. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

106. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

107. In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

108. Refer to the exhibit.





How many objects, Keys and JSON list values are present?

109. Which is a fact related to FTP?

110. An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset.

Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

111. Refer to the exhibit.





The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2.

Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

112. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

113. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

114. What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

115. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

116. Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

117. Refer to exhibit.





Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

118. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

119. How does authentication differ from authorization?

120. After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

121. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

122. Refer to the exhibit.





A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10.

What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

123. Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?

124. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

125. Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

126. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

127. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they

mitigate on the right.

128. Refer to the exhibit.





When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

129. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

130. An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration.

Which command must be issued on the router interface?

131. What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

132. What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

133. What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

134. Refer to the exhibit.





How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

135. An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode.

What action should be taken?

136. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

137. What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

138. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

139. Refer to the exhibit.





Which command provides this output?

140. Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

141. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

142. Refer to the exhibit.





Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table.

Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

143. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

144. What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

145. Refer to the exhibit.





Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch.

Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?

146. When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

147. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used..

Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

148. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet.

Which command

sequence must be configured?

A)





B)





C)





D)

149. Refer to the exhibit.





A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule Issue.

Which subnet and mask Identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

150. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

151. DRAG DROP





An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B.

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.

152. Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

153. Why implement VRRP?

154. What is a zero-day exploit?

155. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

156. An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions.

Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

157. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)





B)





C)





D)

158. Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

159. Refer to the exhibit.





What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?

160. Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

161. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.

Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

162. An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor.

What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

163. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

164. Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

165. Refer to the exhibit.





Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

166. Refer to the exhibit.





R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B.

Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

167. Refer to the Exhibit.





A)





B)





C)





D)

168. What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?

169. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

170. Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

171. When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

172. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

173. Refer to the exhibit.





Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190.

Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

174. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

175. Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

176. Refer to the exhibit.





What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

177. When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

178. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

179. Refer to the Exhibit.





A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1.

Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)





B)





C)





D)

180. Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

181. What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

182. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined tot the Internet.

What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

183. Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)

184. Refer to the exhibit.





What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

185. Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?

186. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

187. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

188. A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss.

Which command sequence must the engineer configured

189. Refer to the exhibit.









To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

190. Refer to the Exhibit.





Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet.

Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

191. Refer to the exhibit.





Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1.

What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

192. What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

193. DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency.

Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

194. A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch.

What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

195. What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

196. How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

197. What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

198. Refer to the exhibit.





An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts.

Which configuration script must be used?

199. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two)

201. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

202. Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

203. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

204. Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

205. What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

206. An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network.

Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?

207. Refer to the exhibit.





What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

208. What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

209. Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

210. OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2.

Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

211. What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

212. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

213. How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

214. What is a function of a remote access VPN?

215. What describes the operation of virtual machines?

216. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

217. What is a function of an endpoint?

218. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network.

Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

219. Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?

220. Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

221. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

222. What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

223. Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

224. Refer to the exhibit.





PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down.

Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)





B)





C)





D)

225. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server.

Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

226. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

227. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

228. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

229. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

230. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table.

Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

231. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.

232. When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

233. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

234. Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)





B)





C)





D)

235. A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172. 31.0 .0/16.72.31.0.0724. and 172.31 0 0/25.

How does the router handle the packet?

236. Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)

237. Refer to the exhibit.





Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

238. When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

239. Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

240. How does frame switching function on a switch?

241. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

242. A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites.

What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

243. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.

Which type of security program is in place?

244. Refer to the exhibit.





Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table.

Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

245. Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

246. Refer to the exhibit.





Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?