D-NWG-FN-23 Dumps Help You Study Objectives

1. Refer to the output:

console#show interfaces switchport te1/0/1 Port: Te1/0/1

VLAN Membership Mode: General Mode Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

General Mode PVID: 9 General Mode Ingress Filtering: Enabled General Mode

Acceptable Frame Type: Admit All

General Mode Dynamically Added VLANs: General Mode Untagged VLANs: 1, 9

General Mode Tagged VLANs: 10-11 General Mode Forbidden VLANs: Trunking

Mode Native VLAN: 1 (default)

Trunking Mode Native VLAN Tagging: Disabled Trunking Mode VLANs Enabled: All

Private VLAN Host Association: none Private VLAN Mapping:

Private VLAN Operational Bindings: Default Priority: 0

Protected: Disabled console#

What VLAN will untagged ingress traffic be assigned?

2. A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The routing table is not populating even after the network statements are added.

What is a possible cause of this issue?

3. Several PCs are connected together using an Ethernet hub.

How does an Ethernet network interface card recognize that a collision has occurred?

4. Which is the slowest standard that a CAT6 cable supports?

5. What is the default PIM-SSM IP range?

6. What does the blinking yellow Activity/PoE LED indicate on an N-Series switch?

7. Which protocols use a central server to authenticate users?

8. Which address is a valid 802.3 MAC address?

9. A client must connect a printer located on a public area on an X1000. The client is concerned someone will use the printer Ethernet cable to gain unauthorized network access.

Which configuration will help prevent unauthorized accesses?

10. Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

11. Which three services use UDP for data segment transportation? (Choose three.)

12. A customer reports they can no longer access their services and a network administrator has been assigned to investigate. A UFD disabled error status appears on all ports.

What caused the issue?

13. Which IPv6 address type is similar to IPv4 APIPA?

14. What is the default route preference value for OSPF?

15. Which IP address is in the Class B range?

16. How many stackable units are supported by a C1048P Rapid Access Node?

17. Which route would a Layer 3 switch choose if a packet has a destination IP address of 172.16.2.70?

18. Refer to the exhibit.





A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The new switch routing table is NOT populating even after the correct network statements are added.

What is causing this issue?

19. A technician wants to allow SSH connections to authenticate using an external server. If the external server becomes unreachable, the users created on the switch should be allowed.

What command will accomplish this goal?

20. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the VRRP state of OS10-A after a router with a default VRRP admin priority with VRID100 comes online?

21. A technician is applying a switch configuration to an N-Series switch to provide Internet access to all connected subnets. The technician has connected a computer and assigned it an IP address, subnet mask, DNS, and gateway address. The technician is unable to browse the Internet from that computer.

What is causing the issue?

22. Refer to the output.





A technician implements a new N-Series switch and connects it to another N-Series switch with OSPF already configured. The OSPF neighbor does not show up after 5 minutes of waiting.

What is causing the issue?

23. What is the correct sequence of steps when a web browser accesses a web server?

24. Which command sequence leads to the successful creation of a Layer 3 port channel on an OS10 switch?

25. Given the following customer environment:

- Two switches are connected with two crossover cables

- STP is disabled

What will happen between the two switches?

26. Which address is an IPv4 Broadcast address?

27. Which command is used to verify the DHCP configuration on a Microsoft Windows client?

28. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF routing issue. There are two paths to a destination network from one switch. In addition, one path is comprised of four 1 Gb links.

The other path is comprised of two 1 Gb and two 100 Mb links. The administrator ran several trace routes and notices that the packets are swapping back and forth between the two paths.

Which corrective action must be taken on the switch infrastructure to correct this issue?

29. Which of the following is the starting prefix to denote a link local address?

30. Select the correct command syntax for copying files:

31. How does a DHCP Client make a request to a DHCP server following an offer?

32. Which route type is added to the routing table by a routing protocol?

33. Refer to the exhibit.





The output shown is from which command?

34. What criteria is used to determine STP root elections?

35. Which Ethernet frame forwarding method works best when the outbound ports run at the same speed as the inbound port?

36. A technician enables Dot1x RADIUS authentication globally on all ports on the N2000 switch. All ports show as unauthorized and management access to the switch has been lost.

What is causing network connectivity loss on the switch?

37. Which switch mode is used to manage files and display switch information?

38. What information is used to define an extended MAC ACL filter?

39. Which command should be used if a switch running OS10 must honor incoming pause frames on an interface?

40. Which of the following is an optional LLDP TLV?

41. What is the default MAC address aging time interval for a switch's MAC address table?

42. There is a spanning tree mismatch at the global level. PVST+ is configured on a VLT peer. All VLT port channels go down on both VLT peers. A syslog error message is generated.

What is the correct action to resolve the issue?

43. What are the mandatory TLV fields in a LLDP PDU frame?

44. You have been tasked with designing an IPv4 scheme for the 192.168.40.0/24 network.

What subnet mask can be used to produce at least five networks that can each support 28 hosts?

45. A customer is using the following subnets in their environment:

- Desktops 192.168.1.0/24

- Servers192.168.2.0/24

- Printers 192.168.7.0/24

- DMZ 172.16.10.0/24

The customer has run out of IP space in their desktop subnet. More IPs for desktops must be provided with the least disruptive change to the environment.

Which desktop subnet meets the requirements?

46. Which OS6 command is used to verify the running configuration on port 4?

47. Which option is used to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide one-to-one mapping between local and global addresses?

48. Which Ethernet frame forwarding method works best in networks with intermittent connectivity problems?

49. Which IPv6 scope is used for private addressing within an organization?

50. Which command is available in OS6 to verify jumbo frames?

51. Which component translates data, signaling, and protocols to facilitate the data flow between the end device and the network?

52. Which switch should Spanning Tree Protocol choose to become the root bridge in the election process?

53. Which command configures local authentication for SSH as the primary method?

54. What is the correct sequence of steps that occur in the communications between the client and server to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server?

55. Which fields are mandatory TLVs in a LLDP PDU frame?

56. A network technician has printers that negotiate at half-duplex.

Which three switches will auto-negotiate the printers? (Choose three.)

57. Which Layer 1 device can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?

58. A network administrator needs to identify which MAC addresses are static.

Under which column in the output of the show mac-address-table command is this information displayed?

59. What is the default route preference value for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) internal route?

60. Which port type should be used for only VLAN-unaware devices?

61. 1. At which layer of the OSI model is the Rapid Spanning Tree protocol used to prevent switching loops?

62. Refer to the output:





A technician creates a new fiber connection to the switch. The transceivers and cable are plugged in at both ends. The connection is in a link down state.

What is causing the issue?

63. What is the size of the VLAN tag in an Ethernet frame?

64. What is an advantage of UFD?

65. In IPv4, what is the proper conversion from binary to decimal for the number 11010010?

66. How many total addresses for network, broadcast, and host are provided with the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

67. Refer to the exhibit.





Two Dell Networking N2000s connected in stack and one Dell Networking N3000 with out of- box configuration are connected as shown.





Which additional change must be made for the link aggregation between the switches to become active?

68. Refer to the output:

console#show interfaces switchport gigabitethernet 1/0/5 Port: Gi1/0/5

VLAN Membership Mode: Access Mode Access Mode VLAN: 3

General Mode PVID: 1 (default)

General Mode Ingress Filtering: Enabled General Mode Acceptable Frame Type: Admit

All General Mode Dynamically Added VLANs: General Mode Untagged VLANs: 1

General Mode Tagged VLANs: General Mode Forbidden VLANs:

Trunking Mode Native VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Mode Native VLAN Tagging:

Disabled Trunking Mode VLANs Enabled: All

Private VLAN Host Association: none

Private VLAN Mapping:

Private VLAN Operational Bindings: Default Priority: 0

Protected: Disabled

Port Gi1/0/5 on a Dell N2024 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch.

Why will the trunk fail to form?

69. Two OS10 switches reside within a VLT domain with statically configured primary-priorities. The current primary peer, switch OS10-A, has a priority of 100, while the secondary peer, OS10-B, has a priority of 200.

If OS10-A reboots and comes back online, what roles will the VLT peers be assigned?

70. Which command shows whether a LAG protocol is static or dynamic on a Dell EMC Networking OS10 switch?

71. Root bridge Switch A is connected to Switch B. They are connected using the same corresponding interfaces Gi1/01 and Gi1/0/2 on both sides.

Which interface becomes a root port?

72. What is the dynamically assigned port range in the Transport layer?

73. Two N3024F switches are directly connected using 10GBASE-SR transceivers and 10 foot fiber patch cables. The ports on both sides are NOT linking.

What are two possible reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)

74. A client needs to allow Telnet traffic from the 192.168.1.0/25 network. The client needs to configure the “permit” statement in the ACL.

Which command will accomplish this goal?

75. What version of IGMP is required by PIM-SSM receivers?

76. Which IPv6 protocol is used by a host to discover the network configuration?

77. A Dell N2024 switch receives a frame from a directly connected host. The switch learns that the source MAC address is NOT present in the MAC address table. The destination address is present in the MAC address table.

What does the switch do with the frame?

78. A Dell Networking N-Series switch is directly connected to a wireless Access Point that requires access to VLANs 1, 10, and 20 configured on the switch.

Which two Port VLAN Modes can be used to meet the VLAN requirements? (Choose two.)

79. Which field in an IP header is used for QoS marking?

80. Which command is used to create a non-default VRF instance?

81. Using the MAC 8c-ec-4b-5b-61-9d, what is a valid EUI-64 link local address?

82. What accurately describes OSPF?

83. Which command defines the possible IP addresses that can be leased to clients using DHCP?

84. What are the correct steps to configure a static LAG on a Dell Networking OS10 switch?

85. Which type of route is often used to direct traffic bound for the Internet?