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December 29, 2024

Broadcom 250-580 dumps questions are an essential tool for anyone looking to pursue the Symantec Certified Specialist (SCS) certification. By using these 250-580 dumps questions as part of your exam preparation, you can gain a deeper understanding of the exam format, identify knowledge gaps, build confidence, get real-time feedback, and stay up-to-date with the latest trends in Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist. So, if you're serious about achieving 250-580 certification success, be sure to incorporate 250-580 exam dumps questions into your study plan. Test free Broadcom 250-580 exam dumps below.

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1. Why is it important for an Incident Responder to review Related Incidents and Events when analyzing an incident for an After Actions Report?

It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the threat does not continue to spread to other parts of the environment.

It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and future threats are automatically remediated.

It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder is able to close the incident in the SEDR manager.

It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder can determine the best remediation method.

2. Performance on a SEPM is less than expected and generates intermittent errors.

How could the system administrators be notified of performance issues?

Add a System event alert and specify how often the notifications need to be raised. Specify the e-mail address that needs to be notified and the action when the server health becomes poor.

Add an Authentication alert and specify how often the notifications need to be raised. Specify the e-mail address that needs to be notified and the action when the server health becomes poor.

Add a Client security alert and specify how often the notifications need to be raised. Specify the e-mail address that needs to be notified and the action when the server health becomes poor.

Add a Server health alert and specify how often the notifications need to be raised. Specify the e-mail address that needs to be notified and the action when the server health becomes poor.

3. A company allows users to create firewall rules. During the course of business, users are accidentally adding rules that block a custom internal application.

Which steps should the Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take to prevent users from blocking the custom application?

Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules below the blue line

Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line

Create an Allow All Firewall rule for the fingerprint of the file and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line

Create an Allow for the network adapter type used by the application and place it at the top of the firewall rules below the blue line

4. Which type of communication is blocked, when isolating the endpoint by clicking on the isolate button in SEDR?

All non-SEP and non-SEDR network communications

All network communications

Only SEP and SEDR network communications

Only Web and UNC network communications

5. Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)

Entire Network

IP range within the network

Subnet Range

IP range within the subnet

Entire Subnet

6. Which two (2) instances could cause Symantec Endpoint Protection to be unable to remediate a file? (Select two.)

Another scan is in progress.

The detected file is in use.

There are insufficient file permissions.

The file is marked for deletion by Windows on restart.

The file has good reputation.

7. When can an administrator add a new replication partner?

Immediately following the first LiveUpdate session of the new site

During a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager upgrade

During the initial installation of the new site

Immediately following a successful Active Directory sync

8. What tool can administrators use to create custom behavioral isolation policies based on collected application behavior data?

Behavioral Prevalence Check

Behavioral Heat Map

Application Catalog

Application Frequency Map

9. Which security control runs at the packet level to inspect traffic for malicious communication patterns?

Network Protection

Intrusion Prevention

Exploit Mitigation

Firewall

10. An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment.

What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Host Integrity

System Lockdown

Application Control

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

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11. Why is it important for an Incident Responder to search for suspicious registry and system file changes when threat hunting?

Attackers can establish persistence within an infected host

Attackers can trick users into giving up their enterprise credentials

Attackers may shadow valid sessions and inject hidden actions

Attackers may cause unusual DNS requests

12. Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Push Enrollment

Auto Discovery

Push Discovery

Device Enrollment

13. Which type of activity recorder does EDR provide?

Virtual

Endpoint

Temporary

14. Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

opportunistic attack

file-less attack

script kiddies

living off the land

15. An administrator needs to identify infected computers that require a restart to finish remediation of a threat.

What steps in the SEPM should an administrator perform to identify and restart the systems?

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Risk log to restart computers.

View the SONAR log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Computer Status log to restart computers.

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the SONAR log to restart computers.

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Attack log to restart computers.

16. Which communication method is utilized within SES to achieve real-time management?

Long polling

Standard polling

Push Notification

Heartbeat

17. What is the maximum number of endpoints a single SEDR Manager can support?

200,000

25,000

100,000

50,000

18. What is the result of disjointed telemetry collection methods used within an organization?

Investigators lack granular visibility

Back of orchestration across controls

False positives are seen

Attacks continue to spread during investigation

19. What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Data matching the exact field names and their values

Data matching a regular expression

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

Data based on specific values for a given field

20. An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment.

What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)

Organizational merger

Sufficient WAN bandwidth

Delay-free, centralized reporting

24x7 admin availability

Legal constraints

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21. What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to the traditional threat?

Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.

Emerging threats require artificial intelligence to be detected.

Emerging threats are undetectable by signature-based engines.

Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.

22. What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?

SEDR Cloud Console

Synapse

SEP Endpoints

SEPM

23. An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list.

What can the user do to gain access to the application?

Email the App Control Admin

Request an Override

Install the application

Wait for the Application Drift process to complete

24. In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk.

Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

False positives may delete legitimate files.

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

25. The LiveUpdate Download Schedule is set to the default on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).

How many content revisions must the SEPM keep to ensure clients that check in to the SEPM every 10 days receive xdelta content packages instead of full content packages?

26. Files are blocked by hash in the deny list policy.

Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?

SHA2

SHA256

SHA256 "salted"

MD5 "Salted"

27. Which other items may be deleted when deleting a malicious file from an endpoint?

Registry entries that point to that file

The incident related to the file

SEP Policies related to that file

Files and libraries that point to that file

28. If an administrator enables the setting to manage policies from the cloud, what steps must be taken to reverse this process?

Navigate to ICDm > Enrollment and disable the setting

Unenroll the SEPM > Disable the setting > Re-enroll the SEPM

Revoke policies from ICDm

Revoke policies from SEPM

29. What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

Prevent programs from running

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

30. An administrator notices that some entries list that the Risk was partially removed. The administrator

needs to determine whether additional steps are necessary to remediate the threat.

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console can the administrator find additional information on the risk?

Risk log

Computer Status report

Notifications

Infected and At-Risk Computers report

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31. What protection technologies should an administrator enable to protect against Ransomware attacks?

Firewall, Host Integrity, System Lockdown

IPS, SONAR, and Download Insight

IPS, Firewall, System Lockdown

SONAR, Firewall, Download Insight

32. An administrator changes the Virus and Spyware Protection policy for a specific group that disables Auto-Protect. The administrator assigns the policy and the client systems apply the corresponding policy serial number. Upon visual inspection of a physical client system, the policy serial number is correct. However, Auto-Protect is still enabled on the client system.

Which action should the administrator take to ensure that the desired setting is in place for the client?

Restart the client system

Run a command on the computer to Update Content

Enable the padlock next to the setting in the policy

Withdraw the Virus and Spyware Protection policy

33. What version number is assigned to a duplicated policy?

The original policy's version number

Zero

The original policy's number plus one

One

34. How does an administrator view all devices impacted by a suspicious file?

From the Alerts and Events list, select Files; then, from the file list, select Devices.

From the Discovered Items list, select Devices.

From the Discovered Items list, select the file; then, from the Details page, select Devices.

From the Alerts and Event list, select Device.

35. How are Insight results stored?

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client

36. On which platform is LiveShell available?

Windows

All

Linux

Mac

37. Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

Intrusion Prevention Report

Blocked Threats Report

Network Risk Report

Access Violation Report

38. What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

Entity View

Process View

Full Dump

Endpoint Dump

39. Which ICDm role is required in order to use LiveShell?

Security Analyst

Administrator

Viewer

Any

40. What type of policy provides a second layer of defense, after the Symantec firewall?

Virus and Spyware

Host Integrity

Intrusion Prevention

System Lockdown

Page 5 of 5

41. Which SES feature helps administrators apply policies based on specific endpoint profiles?

Policy Bundles

Device Profiles

Policy Groups

Device Groups

42. Which device page should an administrator view to track the progress of an issued device command?

Command History

Activity Update

Command Status

Recent Activity

43. After several failed logon attempts, the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) has locked the default admin account. An administrator needs to make system changes as soon as possible to address an outbreak, but the admin account is the only account.

Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem with minimal impact on the existing environment?

Wait 15 minutes and attempt to log on again

Restore the SEPM from a backup

Run the Management Server and Configuration Wizard to reconfigure the server

Reinstall the SEPM

44. What does a medium-priority incident indicate?

The incident may have an impact on the business

The incident can result in a business outage

The incident does not affect critical business operation

The incident can safely be ignored

45. Which type of event does operation:1 indicate in a SEDR database search?

File Deleted.

File Closed.

File Open.

File Created.

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