Improve Your Knowledge with D-CIS-FN-01 Exam Dumps

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April 28, 2025

Practicing with D-CIS-FN-01 questions can help you identify areas where you need to improve your knowledge. By answering D-CIS-FN-01 questions and reviewing your responses, you can identify gaps in your understanding and focus your study efforts on those areas. The D-CIS-FN-01 exam has a strict time limit, and you need to manage your time effectively to answer all the questions. Practicing with DELL EMC D-CIS-FN-01 dumps questions can help you develop time management skills by simulating the exam's time constraints. You'll learn how to pace yourself, manage your time effectively, and ensure that you complete the D-CIS-FN-01 exam within the allotted time. Test DELL EMC D-CIS-FN-01 exam free dumps below.

Page 1 of 12

1. What is an advantage of using a distributed virtual switch?

It eliminates the requirement of individually configuring policies to hypervisor kernel ports

It enables management of the instances of the distributed virtual switch from a centralized server

It enables physical NICs to use MAC addresses for transmission of frames

It aggregates both physical and distributed virtual switches across a cloud infrastructure

2. How can cloud administrators benefit from alerting?

Gathering historical information on resource usage

Enabling service desk operation for service support

Responding proactively to service-related issues

Checking validity of the configuration management system

3. What is a virtual appliance?

A preconfigured virtual machine, preinstalled with a guest OS and an application, dedicated to a specific function

A master copy of a virtual machine with a standardized virtual hardware and software configuration that is used to create new virtual machines

An interface to view and manage the virtual machines on a physical compute system or a compute cluster

Software installed on a computer system that enables multiple virtual machines to share the resources of the computer system

4. What is true about application virtualization?

Resolves application conflicts and compatibility issues

Allows for OS modifications on host machines

Prevents the use of conflicting applications on the same end-point device

Increases the complexity of application deployment

5. What characterizes an uplink NIC used in a virtual machine network on a physical compute system running a hypervisor?

It does not have assigned IP addresses

It is used as a link between virtual machines

It offloads iSCSI processing from the hypervisor

It encapsulates SCSI data into Ethernet frames

6. Which risk management step deploys various security mechanisms that minimize risks impacts?

Identification

Mitigation

Assessment

Monitoring

7. What is true about change management?

Defines SLA compliance

Triggers alerts

Monitors compliance

8. A cloud service provider is concerned about the security risks due to velocity-of-attack.

What can the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the impact of this attack?

Containment mechanisms

Role-based access control

Multi-factor authentication

Shredding data-at-rest

9. What term refers to the entry points from which an attack can be launched?

Work factor

Velocity of attack

Attack vector

Attack surface

10. What is the effect of a denial of service attack?

Privileges are misused to compromise data security

Legitimate users are prevented from accessing services

User credentials are captured and sent to the attacker

Unauthorized access is gained to user accounts and data

Page 2 of 12

11. An organization plans to deploy a community cloud on their premises. Computer systems of the other organizations in the community must have LAN connectivity with those in the cloud infrastructure.

Which network virtualization technique do they require?

Virtual Extensible LAN

Private Virtual LAN

Community Virtual LAN

Isolated Virtual LAN

12. What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?

Eliminates CAPEX

Eliminates OPEX

Does not require a separate storage array

Enables rapid scalability

13. Which cloud security objective provides the required secrecy of information to ensure that only authorized users have access to data held within the cloud?

Integrity

Authorization

Authentication

Confidentiality

14. In which step of the service enablement roadmap does an organization rapidly adopt a deployed cloud infrastructure and build administrative competencies?

Understand

Optimize

Build

Enable

15. What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

16. In a cloud infrastructure, the computer systems of multiple consumers share the same network infrastructure. The cloud provider wants to restrict the communication among consumers' computer systems by enabling isolation over the shared network infrastructure.

Which mechanism enables this isolation?

Virtual LAN

Firewall

Intrusion prevention and detection system

iSNS discovery domain

17. What is a key function of service operation management?

Perform market research.

Establish pricing and budgeting.

Enable problem resolution.

Analyze customer feedback.

18. A storage system is configured with erasure coding. The data is divided into eight data fragments and four coding fragments. Each fragment is stored on a different disk drive in the storage system.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures the storage system can tolerate without data loss in this implementation?

19. Which Dell EMC product is used for a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based data deduplication?

NetWorker

ProtectPoint

Data Domain

Avamar

20. What activity is performed during the service planning phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

Discovering Service Assets

Defining Service Offering

Developing Service Enablement Roadmap

Defining Orchestration Workflow

Page 3 of 12

21. What is a characteristic of the subscription by time chargeback model?

Cost of providing a cloud service for a period of time is divided among a predefined number of consumers

Easier to manage financially with a predetermined, reoccurring billing cycle

Heavy service usage by one line of business over another does not automatically incur penalties

Controls the service usage by using electronic tickets over a short period

22. Which host-based security attribute supports audit, multifactor authentication, and IP address filtering?

Virtual machine hardening

Hypervisor hardening

Application hardening

Operating system hardening

23. Which factors should be considered when establishing a billing policy for cloud services?

Provider's business goals and service-specific pricing strategy

Provider's chargeback requirement and personalization policy

Service level objectives and service termination policy

Service enablement roadmap and de-provisioning strategy

24. What is a function of business relationship management?

Determine if the capacity of IT services can deliver the agreed upon service levels

Identity requirements and ensure that the appropriate services are provided

Identify accurate information for all operational services

Determine what the sufficient capacity is to meet business demand

25. When does an incident turn into a problem?

If the incident is raised by an external customer

If incident is critical and needs immediate attention

If the incident is raised by an internal customer

If the incident is not addressable by the incident management team

26. What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?

When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.

When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it

Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it

When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it

27. Which activity is carried out during the `Plan' step of the service enablement roadmap?

Analyzing the gap between existing IT capability and expected IT capability

Understanding the business value that the services can bring

Optimizing the cloud infrastructure and services to an evolving business strategy

Transforming the existing IT infrastructure to deliver services as planned

28. Match the 12-Factor App rule names with the corresponding practice definitions.

Disposability - Maximize robustness with fast startup and graceful shutdown Config - Access services through well-defined URLs Port binding - Externalize the values use by the application by connecting to things that might change Codebase - Put all the code in a single repository that belongs to a version control system

Disposability - Access services through well-defined URLs Config - Externalize the values use by the application by connecting to things that might change Port binding - Maximize robustness with fast startup and graceful shutdown Codebase - Put all the code in a single repository that belongs to a version control system

Disposability - Put all the code in a single repository that belongs to a version control system Config - Maximize robustness with fast startup and graceful shutdown Port binding - Externalize the values use by the application by connecting to things that might change Codebase - Access services through well-defined URLs

Disposability - Externalize the values use by the application by connecting to things that might change Config - Maximize robustness with fast startup and graceful shutdown Port binding - Put all the code in a single repository that belongs to a version control system Codebase - Access services through well-defined URLs

29. What is an example of operating system (OS) hardening?

Encrypting application data at rest

Disallowing unauthorized modifications to application settings

Changing OS frequently to run applications

Deleting unused programs and installing current updates

30. What is a benefit of application virtualization?

Allows inclusion of standard applications into an end-point image

Eliminates the need for OS modifications

Enables online data migrations between storage systems

Page 4 of 12

31. Which layer of a cloud infrastructure includes tools that optimize resource utilization?

Virtual layer

Physical layer

Orchestration layer

Service layer

32. An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.

Which statement is true about the file system?

It enables VM files to be stored on remote file servers.

It is installed on the local storage of the computer system.

It enables multiple hypervisors to write to a VM file concurrently.

It is installed on the guest operating system of each V

33. An organization plans to deploy automated storage tiering to manage the storage resources efficiently.

What key parameters should they consider while deploying automated storage tiering?

Security, cost

Security, availability

Cost, performance

Performance, security

34. Which cloud role has the responsibility to perform independent cloud service assessments?

Architect

Broker

Consumer

Auditor

35. An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.

Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application?

Hybrid

Forklift

Functional

Compatible

36. Which RSA product enables multi-factor authentication?

SecurID

Archer eGRC

Envision

BSAFE

37. Which solution provides the capability to restore data to any previous point in time?

Image-based backup

Asynchronous replication

Guest-level backup

Continuous data protection

38. What is the effect of network broadcast traffic reaching the configured network storm control threshold on a switch port?

Broadcast traffic is blocked. Subsequent broadcast frames are dropped for a specific interval.

Broadcast traffic is allowed partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.

Switch port bandwidth increases automatically to accommodate the traffic.

The switch port is disabled. Administrator intervention is required to enable it.

39. What is a goal of governance?

Reviewing audit controls and processes

Managing and mitigating uncertainties

Demonstrating adherence to government laws

Identifying internal and external vulnerabilities

40. What is a responsibility of the Service Account Manager?

Maintaining day-to-day contact that consumers' needs are met

Designing, planning, managing, maintaining, and supporting the cloud infrastructure

Understanding consumers' needs and industry trends to drive an affective product strategy

Streaming service delivery and execution, and handling early warnings for service issues

Page 5 of 12

41. Match each replication type with the appropriate description.

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time Synchronous - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Allows data recovery to any point in time Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Synchronous - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Asynchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time Synchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system

Continuous Data Protection (CDP) - Creates copy of file system at a specific point in time, even when the original file system continues to be updated and used normally Snapshot - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to both the source and the remote replica before it is acknowledged to the compute system Asynchronous - Remote replication where the write IO from a compute system is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged back to the compute system Synchronous - Allows data recovery to any point in time

42. What could be a possible cause for the degradation in the performance of virtual machines (VMs) during a guest-level backup operation?

Backup agent running inside VMs consumes additional resources.

VM snapshot created for the backup consumes additional resources.

VMs move into read only mode during backup operations.

VMs move into sleep mode during backup operations.

43. A healthcare organization has an innovative idea of providing personalized medicine to their patients. But the organization does not have the required infrastructure and skill set to develop the product that provides this capability.

Which strategy would you suggest that helps the organization to release the product quickly and bring competitive advantage in the marketplace?

Buy the integrated infrastructure

Bring-your-own infrastructure

Buy best-of-breed infrastructure

Build-your-own infrastructure

44. What describes network-attached storage (NAS)?

High-performance file server that either has integrated storage or is connected to external storage

Dedicated file server that maintains the mapping between the object IDs and the file system namespace

Storage system used for creation and assignment of block storage volumes to compute systems

File storage that stores data in the form of objects based on the content and other attributes of the data

45. What activity is performed during service planning?

Discovering service assets

Establishing billing policy

Creating orchestration workflow

Creating service contract

46. Which concept ensures accountability for security breaches or misuse of resources?

Compliance

Governance

Risk management

47. What is provided by an uplink NIC used in a virtual machine network on a physical compute system running a hypervisor?

Connectivity between a virtual switch and a physical Ethernet switch

Connectivity between a virtual switch and physical NICs

Inter-switch links (ISLs) between virtual switches

Connectivity between a virtual switch and virtual NICs

48. Which cloud service model enables an organization to deploy a proprietary operating system and applications on a cloud provider's resources?

Infrastructure as a Service

Platform as a Service

Software as a Service

Desktop as a Service

49. What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication?

Provides near zero recovery point objective

Replicates data across any geographic location without impacting response time

Supports locality of reference to improve replication performance

Saves network bandwidth by replicating only deduplicated data

50. What is included in the service offering from a cloud service provider?

Physical device-to-service mapping

Service orchestration guidelines

Service enablement roadmap

Service scaling guidelines

Page 6 of 12

51. What is true of a cloud service design best practice?

Services are inherently more complex and reduce administrative costs.

Services should operate dependently.

Services should be readily available and dependent on one another.

Services must be loosely coupled.

52. An administrator must design a fault-tolerant IT environment for applications.

Which techniques meet this requirement?

Active/Passive for Compute - NIC Teaming for Network - Dual disks for storage

Active/Active for Compute - Link Aggregation for Network - Erasure Coding for storage

Active/Passive for Compute - Spanning for Network - Dynamic Disk Sparing for storage

Active/Standby for Compute - Multipathing for Network - RAID for storage

53. A cloud provider installs a virtual firewall on a hypervisor to reduce the scope of a security breach when there is already a network-based firewall deployed in the cloud environment.

Which strategy did the cloud provider use to mitigate the risk of security threats?

Trusted computing base

Defense-in-depth

Information assurance framework

Adaptive security

54. What enables a cloud service provider to determine if a requirement to keep the data of consumers segregated from each other is being met?

Security audit

Authentication

Authorization

Privacy control

55. Refer to the exhibit, which represents a consumer environment consisting of multiple VMs running Windows operating systems (OSs).

For compliance reasons, the cloud service provider maintains version control over the OS provided to the consumer.

The service provider also ensures that the configurations of the VMs comply with the configuration policy for the OS version. The configuration policy includes the two conditions shown in the exhibit. A monitoring tool verifies VM configurations against the configuration policy and provides the compliance results shown.

What is the percentage of compliance non-adherence?

30.12%

33.34%

58.33%

66.67%

56. Who maintains the credential information of consumers when an OpenID mechanism is deployed?

Identity provider only

Service provider only

Consumer and service provider

Service provider and identity provider

57. Which statement describes the OAuth mechanism?

An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography

An open authentication standard in which a service provider uses authentication services from an OpenID provider

A mechanism designed to examine data packets traversing a network and compare them to a set of filtering rules

58. Which solution would improve the performance of an application with a high number of read requests to SAN storage systems?

Server-flash cache technology

Virtual storage provisioning

Dynamic memory allocation

Hyper-threading

59. What are the key approaches to application transformation?

Restore, Reuse, Retain, Retire

Refactor, Revise, Retain. Retire

Retain, Refactor, Reuse. Revise

Revise, Restore Retain, Re-iterate

60. Which method compares observed events with normal activities to identify abnormal patterns in a system?

Encryption-based authentication

Anomaly-based intrusion detection

Multi-factor authentication

Signature-based intrusion detection

Page 7 of 12

61. In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period?

Fixed cost

Pay-as-you-go

Subscription by peak usage

User-based

62. What benefit is provided by the business continuity process in a cloud?

Helps to reduce the IT budget

Helps to meet the required service availability

Enables meeting the required service performance

Enables the transformation from CAPEX to OPEX

63. Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves ongoing management activities to maintain cloud infrastructure and deployed services?

Service Creation

Service Operation

Service Planning

Service Termination

64. Which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction if two disks fail?

RAID 0

RAID 1

RAID 5

RAID 6

65. Which two are key requirements for fault tolerance?

Document SPOF and Fault Elimination

Fault Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

Network Isolation and Eliminate SPOF

RAID Storage and Fault Isolation

66. An organization wants to leverage the infrastructure resources in their existing data center and transform it to a cloud infrastructure.

Which type of deployment is suitable for this transformation?

Brownfield

Private cloud

Public cloud

Greenfield

67. To implement a new service desk management tool, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?

Change Manager

Financial Manager

Capacity Manager

Service Level Manager

68. What is a function of the physical layer of a cloud infrastructure?

Storing data on storage devices

Creating resource pools

Invoking provisioning tasks

Dynamically allocating resources

69. An organization needs to deploy remote replication between two sites that are 100 km (62 miles) apart. The organization requires a near zero recovery point objective.

Which solution would you recommend?

Hypervisor-based asynchronous replication

Synchronous replication

Snapshot replication

Asynchronous replication

70. An administrator connects the G_Ports of two Fiber Channel switches to each other in a Fiber Channel SAN using an inter-switch link.

Which role is assumed by the two G_Ports on the switches?

F_Port

N_Port

FL_Port

E_Port

Page 8 of 12

71. What is a characteristic of traditional applications?

Monolithic architecture

Support only multi-tier architecture

Availability is managed only by the application

Horizontally scalable

72. What is a benefit of standardizing the cloud interface?

Enhances portability and interoperability across clouds

Reduces service provisioning time and operating expenditures

Provides flexibility and scalability to configure resources

Personalizes the functional and management interfaces of a cloud

73. What is a benefit of the software-defined approach for managing resources?

Provides a set of component functions that can be called from a software component to interact with other software components

Enables automated arrangement and coordination of system functions to manage cloud services

Provides a framework to list services, attributes of services, service-level commitments, terms and conditions for service provisioning

Enables centralized control of IT infrastructure without regard to physical location

74. What helps to recover the cost of providing the service, ensuring profitability, and meeting the provider’s return on investment and reinvestment goals?

Service negotiation

Service level objective

Service valuation

Service level agreement

75. Which network virtualization technique enables nodes at two different sites to be part of the same virtual LAN (VLAN)?

Stretched VLAN

Virtual Extensible LAN

Private VLAN

Community VLAN

76. Which identifier is used to physically recognize a Fibre Channel network adapter in a Fibre Channel SAN?

Domain identifier

MAC address

World Wide Node Name

Fibre Channel address

77. What is a characteristic of a best-of-breed infrastructure?

Prevents vendor lock-in

Provides limited flexibility to choose components

Provides single management software to control multi-vendor components

Requires less time to integrate all the components to build as an appliance

78. Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?

XC Series Appliance

VxBlock

VxRail Appliance

XtremlO

79. Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?

TCP/IP

FCIP

iSCSI

80. Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology?

VSPEX

Vblock

VPLEX

VNX

Page 9 of 12

81. Which cloud standard provides organizations with the required structure, detail, and clarity related to information security, personalized to the cloud industry?

HIPAA

CCM CSA

HITRUST

PCI DSS

82. What is the purpose of a configuration management tool?

Enable the construction of the individual components of a service or infrastructure based on predefined scripts

Enable testing of individual components of the service and infrastructure

Enable automatic provisioning of infrastructure or services

Enable automation and coordination of building multiple components and collectively tested as a system

83. What term refers to businesses that do not have a digital plan, and have limited initiatives or investments related to digital transformation?

Digital Leaders

Digital Laggards

Digital Adopters

Digital Evaluators

84. 1.What is graceful degradation of an application?

Application maintains limited functionality even when some of the modules are not available.

Application can accept all requests from users but responds to only high priority requests.

Application retries the service that is temporarily down and makes it available to users.

Application automatically restarts on another virtual machine and provides full functionality.

85. A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password database.

Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?

Multi-factor authentication

Data shredding

Strong authorization

Malware protection software

86. Which of the following is a key consideration in cloud design?

Minimizing data redundancy

Maximizing resource utilization

Avoiding scalability

Ignoring security concerns

87. An organization deployed a storage system that is configured with erasure coding. The erasure coding technique divides data into five data segments and two coding segments.

What is the maximum number of drive failures supported in the storage system?

88. Which activity is associated with Process Transformation?

Adoption of modern IT infrastructure

Shift in the IT staff skill set

Creating new roles

Adoption of Agile methodologies

89. Which data protection solution enables organizations to protect, manage, and recover data at scale across diverse environments?

Dell PowerProtect DD Series Appliances

Dell Data Domain

Dell Avamar

Dell PowerProtect DP Series Appliances

90. What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?

Review and evaluate the usage of encryption to protect consumers’ data

Ensure adherence to the security demands that are expressed in contracts

Determine if appropriate governance processes are available to meet consumers’ requirements

Review the financial stability of the provider to ensure its longevity

Page 10 of 12

91. What are the benefits of modern applications compared to traditional applications?

Designed to run independently and use a linear, continuous approach in development, build, test, and deploy

Distributed system architecture, designed to run independently, and use multiple programming languages

Single programming language and framework and scale by growing vertically

Monolithic, built with interdependent modules, and use distributed system architecture

92. What is a key element of a cloud portal?

Unified manager

Element manager

Orchestrator

Management interface

93. Which activity is related to service portfolio management?

Conducting market research

Configuring infrastructure

Monitoring cloud services

Performing problem resolution

94. Which is a benefit of implementing target-based deduplication?

Offloads the backup client from the deduplication process

Reduces storage capacity and network bandwidth requirements

Backup client sends only new and unique segments across the network

Optimizes ROBO environments for centralized backup

95. What is a benefit of source-based data deduplication?

Increases the frequency of backups

Reduces compute CPU cycles

Reduces network bandwidth requirements

Reduces recovery times

96. Which cloud security design principle prevents an individual from improper access or system misuse?

Least privilege

Data privacy and ownership

Separation of duties

Secure multitenancy

97. Which data protection solution enables direct backup from primary storage?

Dell EMC Data Domain

Dell EMC ProtectPoint

Dell EMC NetWorker

Dell EMC Avamar

98. What is the primary goal of a business continuity solution?

Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data

Decreases likelihood of a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data

Ensure data availability that is required to conduct vital business operations

Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data

99. What does CHAP use to enable initiators and targets to authenticate each other?

A secret code

OpenID

OAuth

Permissions

100. Which role in a cloud provider organization is responsible for understanding consumer needs and industry trends to drive an effective product strategy?

Service manager

Account manager

Cloud architect

Service operations manager

Page 11 of 12

101. Match each information security concept with its description.

102. What is the function of a software-defined network controller?

Provides instructions for the control plane to handle network traffic based on policies

Provides instructions for the data plane to handle network traffic based on policies

Provides instructions for the data plane to handle network traffic based on external management interactions

Provides instructions for the control plane to handle network traffic based on external management interactions

103. What enables IT organizations to manage, monitor, and track resources used to provide services while also enabling the infrastructure to function normally and adhere to promised SLAs?

Orchestration tool

Cloud service tool

Cloud management tool

Automation tool

104. What describes the operation of the write-through cache in a block-based storage system?

Data is placed in the cache. Data is written to the disk. An acknowledgement for the write is sent.

Data is placed in the cache. An acknowledgement for the write is sent immediately. Data is later written to the disk.

Data is written directly to the disk without being placed in the cache. An acknowledgement for the write is sent.

Data is written directly to the disk. An acknowledgement for the write is sent immediately. Data is later placed in the cache.

105. Which solution can be used for automation of a customer environment?

OpenStack

Ansible

GitHub

CloudWatch

106. What is an organizational benefit of adopting modern applications?

Enhances competitiveness

Removes dependency on IT completely

Eliminates CAPEX

Removes dependency on service provider

107. What is a cloud management product?

VMware FT

VMware vRealize Automation

VMware vRealize Suite

VMware NSX

108. What are two components of an FCoE network?

E_Port, port zone

FCoE Bridge, FC Host Bus Adapter

TCP/IP, Fibre Channel

Converged Network Adapter, FC Forwarder

109. An organization has a private cloud infrastructure. They want to leverage the capabilities of a public cloud by using the hybrid cloud model.

Which virtual private network (VPN) connection method will enable them to establish a secure connection to the public cloud?

Site-to-site VPN connection

Remote access VPN connection

User access VPN connection

Global access VPN connection

110. Which EMC product enables the backing up of data directly from VMAX storage to a Data Domain system?

ProtectPoint

SRDF

RecoverPoint

ViPR

Page 12 of 12

111. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps to determine price per service?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

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