Study Online D-CIS-FN-23 Exam Dumps to Pass

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February 9, 2024

D-CIS-FN-23 dumps questions can help you identify areas where you need to focus your studies. As you answer questions, you will be able to see which topics you are comfortable with and which ones you need to spend more time studying. DELL EMC D-CIS-FN-23 dumps questions provide realistic practice for the certification exam. D-CIS-FN-23 dumps are designed to simulate the actual exam environment, and they will give you a chance to practice answering questions under time pressure. Study free DELL EMC D-CIS-FN-23 online dumps below.

Page 1 of 12

1. What is facilitated by the Topology and Orchestration Specification for Cloud Applications (TOSCA) standard?

Packaging and distribution of virtual appliances across clouds

Preparation of functional interfaces for service orchestration

Portable deployment of services to any compliant cloud

Communication between applications running on a variety of platforms

2. A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password database.

Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?

Multi-factor authentication

Data shredding

Strong authorization

Malware protection software

3. What is true about change management?

Defines SLA compliance

Triggers alerts

Monitors compliance

4. Which mechanism in a Fibre Channel SAN ensures that unauthorized switches connected to a fabric remain segmented?

Port binding

Port-type locking

Persistent port locking

Fabric binding

5. Which host-based security attribute supports audit, multifactor authentication, and IP address filtering?

Virtual machine hardening

Hypervisor hardening

Application hardening

Operating system hardening

6. An administrator connects the G_Ports of two Fiber Channel switches to each other in a Fiber Channel SAN using an inter-switch link.

Which role is assumed by the two G_Ports on the switches?

F_Port

N_Port

FL_Port

E_Port

7. What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

8. Which data storage type uses a non-hierarchical address space to store data?

Block

Object

File

9. How is a node added to a virtual storage area network (VSAN) created on a Fibre Channel SAN?

Assign the VSAN ID to an F_Port on a FC switch Connect the N_Port on the node to the F_Port

Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node Connect the N_Port to an E_Port on a FC switch

Assign the VSAN ID to an E_Port on a FC switch Connect the N_Port on the node to the E_Port

Assign the VSAN ID to the N_Port on the node Connect the N_Port to an F_Port on a FC switch

10. A compute system is configured to access files from a network-attached storage system.

What is a characteristic of the file system?

Managed by the object-based storage device node

Managed by the compute system

Managed by the storage system

Part of the storage area network

Page 2 of 12

11. When does an incident turn into a problem?

If the incident is raised by an external customer

If incident is critical and needs immediate attention

If the incident is raised by an internal customer

If the incident is not addressable by the incident management team

12. An organization requires double the processing capacity for a specific duration to handle increased workload. For the remaining period, the organization might want to release the idle resources to save costs. The workload variations may be seasonal or transient.

Which cloud characteristics enables the consumer to handle such variations in workloads and IT resource requirements?

Rapid elasticity

Resource pooling

Measured service

On-demand self-service

13. What is a benefit of hyper-threading?

Improved processor utilization

Reduced processor cost

Concurrent execution of multiple threads

Pool processors across compute systems

14. The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident.

To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

Performance Management

Change Management

Availability Management

Problem Management

15. What could be a reason for a consumer-initiated service termination?

The service performance is not acceptable.

The consumer violates terms of the contract.

The service provider exits from the cloud business.

The contract agreement terminates naturally.

16. Which role is responsible for designing, planning, managing, maintaining, and supporting the cloud infrastructure when transforming IT?

Cloud Automation Engineer

Cloud DevOps Engineer

Cloud Architect

Cloud Engineer

17. What is an OpenID mechanism?

An open standard for authentication in which a service provider uses authentication services from an identity provider

An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography

A mechanism that examines data packets traversing a network and compares them to a set of filtering rules

18. What is a characteristic of cloud service management?

Adopting automation and workflow orchestration

Enabling IT asset-specific management

Separating management processes from service design

Abstracting cloud service requirements and SLA

19. Which Dell EMC product provides software-defined object storage?

Isilon

XtremIO

Data Domain

Elastic Cloud Storage (ECS)

20. A customer has expressed an interest in using AI or ML to obtain improved data analytics from their PowerEdge servers and PowerMax storage.

Which product can identify deviations and performance impacts?

CloudIQ

eLAB Navigator

SyncIQ

Storage Manager

Page 3 of 12

21. A cloud provider installs a virtual firewall on a hypervisor to reduce the scope of a security breach when there is already a network-based firewall deployed in the cloud environment.

Which strategy did the cloud provider use to mitigate the risk of security threats?

Trusted computing base

Defense-in-depth

Information assurance framework

Adaptive security

22. Which cloud service management option defines the suite of service offerings and aligns it to the service provider’s strategic business goals?

Demand

Capacity

Operation

Portfolio

23. Which product delivers software-defined networks and security with a broad range of services, including a virtual firewall, virtual private network, load balancing, and VXLAN extended networks?

RSA Archer eGRC

RSA Adaptive Authentication

VMware vCloud Networking and Security

RSA Security Analytics

24. What enables a cloud service provider to determine if a requirement to keep the data of consumers segregated from each other is being met?

Security audit

Authentication

Authorization

Privacy control

25. What could be a possible cause for the degradation in the performance of virtual machines (VMs) during a guest-level backup operation?

Backup agent running inside VMs consumes additional resources.

VM snapshot created for the backup consumes additional resources.

VMs move into read only mode during backup operations.

VMs move into sleep mode during backup operations.

26. What is a benefit of the software-defined approach for managing resources?

Provides a set of component functions that can be called from a software component to interact with other software components

Enables automated arrangement and coordination of system functions to manage cloud services

Provides a framework to list services, attributes of services, service-level commitments, terms and conditions for service provisioning

Enables centralized control of IT infrastructure without regard to physical location

27. What helps the service provider to meet the required service availability in a cloud environment?

Increasing the storage resources in the data center

Creating cloud services using limited resources

Building a resilient cloud infrastructure

Creating additional cloud services

28. Which key service management function takes orders from customers, processes bills, and collects payments in the cloud environment?

Service demand management

Service portfolio management

Service operation management

Service capacity management

29. An organization is implementing a backup solution for their private cloud. They are concerned that having the backup data stored onsite will expose them to lose in the event of a site-wide disaster.

They are considering replicating the backup storage to an external site.

What are the design considerations involved with this replication solution?

Ensuring proper hypervisor support and the availability of a federated single sign-on solution

Ensuring network traffic encryption is considered and ensuring proper hypervisor support

Ensuring sufficient network bandwidth is available and network traffic encryption is considered

Ensuring proper hypervisor support and sufficient network bandwidth is available

30. An organization needs to deploy remote replication between two sites that are 100 km (62 miles) apart. The organization requires a near zero recovery point objective.

Which solution would you recommend?

Hypervisor-based asynchronous replication

Synchronous replication

Snapshot replication

Asynchronous replication

Page 4 of 12

31. What is used to update information in a configuration management database?

Performance management tool

Capacity management tool

Configuration manager

Discovery tool

32. What refers to the logging of all transactions when assessing the effectiveness of security controls in a cloud computing environment?

Accounting

Monitoring

Auditing

Metering

33. What is a function of the service layer of a cloud infrastructure?

Presents cloud interfaces

Creates resource pools

Detects service-related problems

Discovers cloud services

34. When using a memory page sharing technique, what happens when a virtual machine tries to update the shared memory page?

A private copy of the page is created.

A new shared memory page is created.

The page is overwritten.

The page is partially updated.

35. Which RSA product enables multi-factor authentication?

SecurID

Archer eGRC

Envision

BSAFE

36. What is a virtual appliance?

A preconfigured virtual machine, preinstalled with a guest OS and an application, dedicated to a specific function

A master copy of a virtual machine with a standardized virtual hardware and software configuration that is used to create new virtual machines

An interface to view and manage the virtual machines on a physical compute system or a compute cluster

Software installed on a computer system that enables multiple virtual machines to share the resources of the computer system

37. In the event of a virtual machine failure, which technique provides zero downtime?

Fault tolerance

Clone

Snapshot

Backup

38. Network traffic shaping is enabled.

What is the effect of the traffic rate exceeding a preconfigured limit?

Excess packets are queued for later transmission.

Excess packets in the transmission are dropped.

Network bandwidth increases to accommodate the traffic.

All the packets in the transmission are dropped.

39. An organization has deployed a cloud infrastructure. They frequently experience power outages that result in their service offerings being unavailable from time to time.

What term refers to this condition?

Transient unavailability

In-transient unavailability

Permanent unavailability

Intermittent unavailability

40. What is specified by a service attribute?

Relationships between services

Configurations of service components

Management operations

Structure of a service

Page 5 of 12

41. What is the Cloud Application Management for Platforms (CAMP) standard?

Standard for the PaaS management interface

Standard for the functional interface of a storage service

Standard for the SaaS functional interface

Specification for both the management and functional interfaces

42. What activity is included in a compliance checklist when moving data to the cloud?

Review and evaluate the usage of encryption to protect consumers’ data

Ensure adherence to the security demands that are expressed in contracts

Determine if appropriate governance processes are available to meet consumers’ requirements

Review the financial stability of the provider to ensure its longevity

43. Which process ensures that users are who they claim to be?

Authentication

Authorization

Auditing

Phishing

44. Which activity is carried out during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

Discovering the service assets

Establishing the billing policy

De-provisioning the service instance

Assessing service requirements

45. What is a possible cause for incurring high capital expenditures for IT, even though resources may remain underutilized for a majority of the time in a traditional data center?

IT resources are provisioned on demand

IT resources are provisioned as self-service

IT resources are configured for peak usage

IT resources are rented as services

46. Which backup method type is represented in the exhibit?

Direct backup

Guest VM level backup

Image-level backup

Guest OS level backup

47. Match each virtual network type with its characteristics.

48. What is a characteristic of a converged infrastructure?

Eliminates CAPEX

Eliminates OPEX

Does not require a separate storage array

Enables rapid scalability

49. Which activity is a part of people transformation?

Automation of IT tasks that reduces manpower needs

Adoption of an modern IT infrastructure

Communication between IT staff and business leaders

Adoption of a standard framework such as ITIL

50. What is a function of the physical layer of a cloud infrastructure?

Storing data on storage devices

Creating resource pools

Invoking provisioning tasks

Dynamically allocating resources

Page 6 of 12

51. In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period?

Fixed cost

Pay-as-you-go

Subscription by peak usage

User-based

52. A specific intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) scans events against known attack patterns.

Which technique is the IDPS using?

Plug-in-based detection

Signature-based detection

Device-based detection

Anomaly-based detection

53. A service is offered to consumers from 8 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime from 5 P.M. to 7 P.M. on Monday of a given week.

What is the service availability for that week?

84.44%

88.88%

95.55%

100.00%

54. Which mechanism restricts external users from accessing an organization’s internal IT resources while still allowing the organization’s application server to access internal IT resources?

Virtual private network

Intrusion detection

Demilitarized zones

Digital signatures

55. What is the effect of a denial of service attack?

Privileges are misused to compromise data security

Legitimate users are prevented from accessing services

User credentials are captured and sent to the attacker

Unauthorized access is gained to user accounts and data

56. Which statement characterizes the software-defined approach for managing resources?

Abstracts the underlying infrastructure components and separates the management functions from the infrastructure components

Provides a framework to list services, attributes of services, service-level commitments, terms and conditions for service provisioning, and prices of services

Provides the automated arrangement, coordination, and management of various system functions in a cloud infrastructure to manage cloud services

Specifies a set of component functions that can be called from a software component to interact with other software components

57. What is a function of financial management?

Provide necessary business cases for investment

Evaluate quality and cost of supplied products against the SLA

Procure capacity in the most cost-effective manner

Meet availability needs with a justifiable return on investment

58. Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?

A)

Exhibit A

Exhibit B

Exhibit C

Exhibit D

59. Which compute system component contains boot firmware?

Operating System

Hard Disk Drive

Read Only Memory

Random Access Memory

60. What is a common characteristic of organizations that have adopted modern applications to unlock digital business advantage?

They bring new services to market quicker and more often than competitors

They leverage only the public cloud to develop and deploy applications

They leverage only their internal IT infrastructure to develop and deploy applications

They focus on meeting internal users’ demands rather than satisfying their customers

Page 7 of 12

61. What is a characteristic of reporting?

Provides tabular or graphical views of monitored information

Presents service instances to consumers in real time

Provides information about events or impending threats or issues

Displays a personalized functional interface

62. What helps in analyzing the utilization and the consumption of resources by service instance?

Monitoring

Personalizing

Service catalog management

Availability management

63. What is a key element of a cloud portal?

Unified manager

Element manager

Orchestrator

Management interface

64. A cloud service provider is concerned about the security risks due to velocity-of-attack.

What can the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the impact of this attack?

Containment mechanisms

Role-based access control

Multi-factor authentication

Shredding data-at-rest

65. Which data protection solution enables organizations to protect, manage, and recover data at scale across diverse environments?

Dell PowerProtect DD Series Appliances

Dell Data Domain

Dell Avamar

Dell PowerProtect DP Series Appliances

66. What is included in service templates?

Service structure and service attributes

Service assets and service level agreement

Service offerings and service contract

Service components and service catalog

67. What is true about the Infrastructure as a code function?

Develops and deploys applications using CI/CD tools

Develops and deploys applications using script files

Manually manages and provisions IT resources

Manages and provisions IT resources using script files

68. Which product can automatically restart virtual machines on another hypervisor in a cluster when a physical compute system in the cluster fails?

VMware HA

VMware Storage vMotion

VMware vMotion

VMware FT

69. What is included in a topology graph defined by Topology and Orchestration Specification for Cloud Applications (TOSCA)?

Virtual appliances and their metadata

SOAP messages and their binding with HTTP

Orchestrators and their workflows

Nodes and their interrelationships

70. A compute system is configured to access data from a block-based storage system over a network.

What must be true about the file system?

It is managed by the computer system.

It is managed by the storage system.

It is part of the storage area network.

It is managed by the object-based storage device node.

Page 8 of 12

71. What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?

Supports replication across any geographic location without impacting response time

Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times

Requires less storage space for the replica than the source LUN

Provides a near zero recovery point objective without impacting response time

72. What describes network-attached storage (NAS)?

High-performance file server that either has integrated storage or is connected to external storage

Dedicated file server that maintains the mapping between the object IDs and the file system namespace

Storage system used for creation and assignment of block storage volumes to compute systems

File storage that stores data in the form of objects based on the content and other attributes of the data

73. What is the correct sequence of steps in synchronous remote replication?

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target). Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source. Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system. Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source. Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Data is transmitted to the replica (target). Step 3: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system. Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.

Step 1: Compute system writes data to source. Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system. Step 3: Data is transmitted to the replica (target). Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.

74. How is a container different from a virtual machine?

Containers are stateful.

Virtual machines start faster.

Containers share an operating system.

Virtual machines are transportable.

75. What is a benefit of secure multitenancy?

Reduces unauthorized access to resources

Blocks unauthorized access to resources

Eliminates data breach risks

Protects cloud infrastructure

76. Which statement describes an image-based backup solution?

The capability to perform recovery only at the file level is provided

Data is transferred directly from the guest OS to the backup device

Backup processing is offloaded from virtual machines to a proxy server

The backup agent is required inside the virtual machine to back up

77. Which Dell EMC product provides a converged infrastructure solution?

XC Series Appliance

VxBlock

VxRail Appliance

XtremlO

78. A service is offered to consumers from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime from 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. on Wednesday of a given week.

What is the service availability for that week?

95.00%

95.88%

96.42%

98.33%

79. What are the key approaches to application transformation?

Restore, Reuse, Retain, Retire

Refactor, Revise, Retain. Retire

Retain, Refactor, Reuse. Revise

Revise, Restore Retain, Re-iterate

80. What workflow software enables automation of complex IT tasks?

VMware vRealize Orchestrator

Dell EMC XtremIO

VMware HA

Dell EMC ScaleIO

Page 9 of 12

81. Which platform provides a converged infrastructure solution?

VxRail

PowerStore

VxBlock

PowerFlex

82. A Cloud Service Brokerage combines cloud services provided by multiple cloud service providers into one or more new services. The specific number of services they combine varies based on user logic.

Which type of Cloud Service Brokerage is it?

Integration

Aggregation

Intermediation

Arbitrage

83. What is the objective of integrity in information security?

Ensure timely and reliable access to resources

Ensure secrecy of stored information

Ensure data protection against unauthorized alterations

Ensure users are responsible for actions executed

84. Which compute system component runs software programs?

CPU

RAM

GPU

85. How is application functionality segmented when using a microservices approach in an application development environment?

Dependent and tightly coupled services

Dependent and loosely coupled services

Independent and loosely coupled services

Independent and tightly coupled services

86. Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?

vCenter Operations Management Suite

vCloud Hybrid Service

vCenter Site Recovery Manager

IT Business Management Suite

87. What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?

Quality of Service

Traffic shaping

Network storm control

Multipathing

88. What is the function of problem management?

Prevent incidents that share common symptoms from occurring

Document incident history used as input for change management

Track service degradation periods to check for SLA violations

Detect and record all incidents in the cloud infrastructure

89. What is a function of the discovery operation during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

Collects information about people involved in the service operations

Collects information about services available in the catalog

Provides visibility into each Cloud service asset employed

Restores service levels while continuously optimizing operations

90. An organization is looking for a cloud solution for application development, testing, and deployment. They do not want to invest in application development tools.

Which cloud service model will address the requirements?

Platform as a Service

Infrastructure as a Service

Software as a Service

Storage as a Service

Page 10 of 12

91. What does the dynamic memory allocation technique do?

Improves performance by defragmentation

Improves performance by moving active data to server cache

Identifies and eliminates redundant copies of memory pages

Enables memory pages to be reclaimed

92. What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?

Enables dynamic workload balancing across zones

Provides high security for compute systems across zones

Reduces bandwidth requirements for replication across zones

Reduces the possibility of disasters occurring in one of the zones

93. Which document specifies the quality and reliability of Cloud services?

Service Level Agreement

Regulatory Compliance Document

Service Charge Rate Specification

Service Termination Agreement

94. What allows an orchestrator to interact with other software components and devices in a cloud infrastructure?

Unified manager

Service template

Application programming interface

Cloud portal

95. Match each key functions of service operation management with its objective.

96. Which task describes adherence to compliance?

Ensure security policies are being enforced

Define access rights to users

Assess the cloud provider's capability to provide logs

Assess assets with realistic valuations

97. Which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction if two disks fail?

RAID 0

RAID 1

RAID 5

RAID 6

98. What is an example of OS hardening?

Deleting unused programs and installing current updates

Changing OS frequently to run applications

Disallowing unauthorized modifications to application settings

Encrypting application data at rest

99. Which cloud standard provides organizations with the required structure, detail, and clarity related to information security, personalized to the cloud industry?

HIPAA

CCM CSA

HITRUST

PCI DSS

100. When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be configured?

Initiator and target

Initiator only

Target only

Application server

Page 11 of 12

101. In a cloud infrastructure, the computer systems of multiple consumers share the same network infrastructure. The cloud provider wants to restrict the communication among consumers' computer systems by enabling isolation over the shared network infrastructure.

Which mechanism enables this isolation?

Virtual LAN

Firewall

Intrusion prevention and detection system

iSNS discovery domain

102. An e-card company uses the Cloud to enable chat services between its sales representatives and consumers. Holiday periods create seasonal demand on IT resources. The e-card company wants to select a billing model that optimizes IT resource costs.

Which billing model should the company choose?

Recurring

User-based

Pay-as-you-go

Subscription

103. What is a function of demand management?

Determine if the capacity of IT services is able to deliver agreed upon service levels.

Ensure accurate information on all operational services for the business.

Understand demand-anticipation and influence business growth for services.

Identify requirements and ensure that the appropriate services are provided.

104. What is a benefit of the discovery operation in a cloud?

Provides visibility into service assets

Organizes the service portfolio in an inventory

Detects and corrects security attacks

Identifies existing vulnerabilities in a cloud

105. Which activity is carried out during the `Plan' step of the service enablement roadmap?

Analyzing the gap between existing IT capability and expected IT capability

Understanding the business value that the services can bring

Optimizing the cloud infrastructure and services to an evolving business strategy

Transforming the existing IT infrastructure to deliver services as planned

106. Which management process helps identify a failing cloud service?

Supplier management

Availability monitoring

Service catalog management

Configuration monitoring

107. What is a characteristic of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)?

Uses XML for formatting messages

Specifies binding of FC and Ethernet frames

Identifies resources based on URIs

Provides 64-bit World Wide Node Name

108. Refer to the Exhibit.

Which step in the service catalog design and implementation process, shown in the exhibit, is marked by 'X'?

Define fulfillment process

Create service attributes

Assess service requirement

Install portal software

109. What is included in the service offering from a cloud service provider?

Physical device-to-service mapping

Service orchestration guidelines

Service enablement roadmap

Service scaling guidelines

110. Which key service management function modifies and aligns services according to consumer needs in the cloud environment?

Service demand management

Service portfolio management

Service operation management

Service capacity management

Page 12 of 12

111. A new service has been created and the service instance is ready to use.

What type of an alert is generated to notify the user about this event?

Instructional

Informational

Warning

Caution

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