Test Online D-ISM-FN-23 Dumps Questions to Be Certified

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March 3, 2024

To help prepare for the D-ISM-FN-23 exam, you may want to consider using D-ISM-FN-23 exam dumps questions. These questions are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of the topics covered on the exam. The more you practice answering D-ISM-FN-23 dumps questions, the more comfortable you will become with the exam format and the types of questions you can expect to see. D-ISM-FN-23 dumps can help reduce anxiety on exam day and improve your chances of success. Go and test free D-ISM-FN-23 exam dumps questions here.

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1. What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?

Prevents legitimate users from accessing resources or services

Intentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security

Gaining unauthorized access to a user’s accounts and data

Captures a user’s credentials and then sends to the attacker

2. Which security mechanism ensures secure access to internal assets while enabling Internet-based access to selected resources?

Virtual local area network

Demilitarized zone

Virtual private network

Discovery domain

3. What is an accurate statement about bridged iSCSI connectivity?

An iSCSI target provides both FCIP and iSCSI ports

An iSCSI initiator is connected to an FC target over an FCIP network

Both the iSCSI initiator and iSCSI target create virtual FC links with an iSNS server

An iSCSI initiator is configured with the gateway’s IP address as its target

4. What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?

Supports only central management of private cloud resources using a pre-defined policy.

Provides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.

Uses only converged and hyperconverged infrastructures to offer services to companies.

Provides decentralized, manual, and policy-driven IT resource management.

5. What enables interoperability between heterogeneous software in a third platform environment?

Virtual private network

Virtual LAN

Collaboration applications

Application programming interface

6. What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.

Supports a single RAID protection level.

Consists of only a virtual storage volume.

Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.

7. What is an accurate statement about stretched VLANs?

Reduces network bandwidth requirements during VM migration across sites.

Requires a change in the VMs' IP addresses to match the addressing scheme at the other sites.

Enables automatic modification of VLAN addresses during VM migration across sites.

Supports migration of VMs across sites without the need to change their network configurations.

8. What is the primary purpose of storage resource management?

Managing user access to files

Optimizing the performance and utilization of storage resources

Encrypting data on storage devices

Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity

9. What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?

Ensures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site failures

Provides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time

Requires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication

Enables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures

10. Which EMC product is a VNX array-based local replication software that creates a full volume mirrorof the source?

SnapView Snapshot

SnapView Clone

TimeFinder/Snap

TimeFinder/Clone

Page 2 of 18

11. Which data center characteristic enables the addition of infrastructure components without interrupting business operations?

Data integrity

Availability

Performance

Scalability

12. Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?

Vaulting

Mirroring

Cache tiering

Idle flushing

13. Which statement describes the purpose of containers?

Provides hypervisor level virtualization to simply resource allocation

Provides portable application support to mainframe applications

Isolates applications to reduce CPU utilization

Bundles an application with required software libraries to run anywhere

14. Which file system provides a streaming interface using the MapReduce framework?

CIFS

HDFS

NFS

NTFS

15. Refer to the exhibit.

What type of Fibre Channel port does the “X” represent?

N_port

F_port

E_port

NL_port

16. Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?

Fabric zoning

WWN zoning

Mixed zoning

Port zoning

17. Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?

Archive storage

Archive database server

Archive agent

Archive stub file

18. Which operation is represented in the exhibit?

Write-back Cache

Read Cache Miss

Write-through Cache

Read Cache Hit

19. Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify intrusions by scanning events against known attack patterns?

Behavior-based

Device-based

Anomaly-based

Signature-based

20. In the context of storage security, what is the primary goal of data encryption?

To speed up data access

To protect data confidentiality

To ensure data deduplication

To manage user access

Page 3 of 18

21. Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?

SRDF

Snap Sure

Mirror View

Protect Point

22. What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?

Designing a new replication solution for data redundancy

Performing trend analysis of storage space consumption

Tracking configuration changes to storage components

Specifying storage space quotas for users

23. What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.

Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.

Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

24. In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 9 data segments and 3 coding segments using the erasure coding technique.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this configuration?

25. In the FC protocol stack, what is the function of the FC-4 layer?

Provides standards for the physical interface, media, and transmission of bits

Provides FC addressing, structure, and organization of data

Provides transmission words, primitive signals, and link initialization

Defines application interfaces and maps storage protocols

26. Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by a single organization having multiple consumers?

Public cloud

Multi-cloud

Hybrid cloud

Private cloud

27. What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?

Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.

Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a V

Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.

Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a V

28. In the context of backup operations, what does the term 'granularity' refer to?

The size of the backup

The frequency of the backup

The level of detail at which data can be restored

The speed of the backup process

29. Which cloud computing characteristic allows on demand capacity scaling in real time?

Rapid Elasticity

Broad Access Network

Resource Pooling

Measured Service

30. Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?

Ability to pool and abstract physical storage and present it as an open storage platform

Ability for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system

Mechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management

Single self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components

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31. What type of network connectivity is illustrated in the image below?

Storage to hybrid cloud connectivity

Compute to storage connectivity

Compute to hybrid cloud connectivity

Data center to data center connectivity

32. Which of the following protocols encapsulates SCSI commands inside IP packets?

FCIP

iSCSI

FCoE

NVMe over Fabrics

33. Which compute system component enables dynamic extension of file system capacity and efficient storage management?

Logical Unit Number

Logical Unit Number Masking

Logical Volume Manager

Virtual Memory Manager

34. Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?

X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port

X is an F_Port and Y is a G_Port

X is a G_Port and Y is an N_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port

35. What is an accurate statement about unstructured data?

Created using only specific client devices and consumes large volumes of storage space

Difficult to extract information from data using traditional applications and requires considerable resources

Organized in rows and columns within named tables to efficiently store and manage data

Created only using a specific tool and needs a relational database to store the data

36. The exhibit represents an FCIP tunnel configuration that merges the two FC SANs at either end of the tunnel.

Which types of ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent on the FCIP gateway shown in the exhibit?

X = E_Port and Y = VE_Port

X = F_Port and Y = VN_Port

X = VF_Port and Y = E_Port

X = VN_Port and Y = VE_Port

37. What is the stripe size of a 5-disk RAID 5 group with a strip size of 32 KB?

96 KB

120 KB

128 KB

160 KB

38. The graphic represents an FCIP tunnel configuration that merges two Fibre Channel SANs at either end of the tunnel.

Which types of ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent on the FCIP gateway?

X = VF_port and Y = E_port

X = E_port and Y = VE_port

X = EX_port and Y = VE_port

X = F_port and Y = E_port

39. What is a feature of 5G technology?

Higher connectivity density

Higher WAN bandwidth

Higher transmission distances

Higher LAN bandwidth

40. What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?

Can span across multiple physical volumes

Can only be created froma single physical volume

Must be created across multiple volume groups

Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently

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41. A user lost access to a key VM due to a hardware failure. A proxy server regularly takes PIT snapshots of the VM to protect the data.

What type of data protection method is this called?

Image-based

Backup as a service

Agent-based

Local replication

42. In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?

Communication bridge between CEE and IP networks

Communication bridge between FC and FCIP networks

Communication bridge between CEE and FCIP networks

Communication bridge between CEE and FC networks

43. What is signified by the “variability” characteristic of big data?

Meaning of the data changes constantly

Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources

Data change rate affects its timely analysis

Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy

44. What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device communications to a group?

iSNS discovery domain

NIC teaming

Demilitarized zone

Security identifier

45. A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24 hours 7 days.

However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:

- Monday = 11 AM to 3 PM

- Thursday = 6 AM to 11 AM

- Saturday = 11 AM to 4 PM

What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?

91.6%

94.6%

95%

90%

46. In an object-based storage system, which elements are associated with an object?

Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path

Metadata, LUN ID, data, and object ID

Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path

Metadata, object ID, data, and attributes

47. What provides users with self-service access to pre-defined storage services?

Storage controller

Control plane

Service catalog

Service discovery

48. Which global addressing does the REST application programming interface use for the discovery of a storage service?

Uniform Resource Identifier

Namespace

Extensible Markup Language

Controller-provided MAC address

49. Which Fibre Channel (FC) interconnectivity option is represented in the graphic?

FC-AL

FCoE

FC-SW

Point-to-Point

50. In a backup operation, what are the correct sequence of steps after the backup server initiates the scheduled backup process?

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51. What is an advantage of deploying a storage area network (SAN) in a data center environment?

Allows a faster access rate by removing the complications of network setu

Reduces the network traffic between compute systems and consolidated storage

Enables data replication between storage systems across different locations

Provides a direct-attached connection between compute systems and storage

52. In an FCoE SAN, what describes a Fibre Channel Forwarder function?

Transfer FCoE traffic over an FC SAN

Encapsulate IP packets into FC frames

Apply zoning configurations and provide fabric services

Provide both FC HBA and Nic functionality

53. Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and automates a data center’s physical storage infrastructure?

XtremIO

ViPR Controller

VxFlex OS

PowerMax

54. Why is it important to deploy virtual machine (VM) storage migration in a data center environment?

Enable efficient management of storage capacity across storage systems

Improve the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system

Reduce a company’s overall storage system capacity requirements

Enable VMs to continue functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure

55. In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager?

Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SA

Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.

Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.

Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SA

56. Which product delivers virtualized or hosted desktops and applications through a single platform?

VMware Horizon

Dell EMC VxRail Appliance

VMware NSX

Dell PowerEdge servers

57. Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?

Machine learning

Social networking

Cloud computing

Internet of Things

58. Match the software-defined storage (SDS) attributes with their respective description.

59. A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.

Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?

Incremental

Cumulative

Full

Differential

60. Which environment is represented in the graphic?

Read miss

Read hit

Cache write-back

Cache write-through

Page 7 of 18

61. What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?

Determine the likelihood of a risk

Plan and deploy security controls

Continuously observe the existing risks

Identify the sources of threats that increase the risks

62. Which logical components are required in compute systems?

Operating system Deduplicating file system RAID LUN manager Device drivers

Operating system File system RAID LUN manager Device drivers

Operating system File system Logical volume manager Device drivers

Operating system Deduplicating File system Logical volume manager Device drivers

63. Which type of LUN provides full control for precise data placement and allows an administrator to create LUNs on different RAID sets if there is workload contention?

Traditional

Thin

Journal

Bitmap

64. Which management monitoring parameter involves examining the amount of infrastructure resources used?

Configuration

Capacity

Performance

Availability

65. In which data access method does the file system access an iSCSI storage system over a network?

Block-based

File-based

Object-based

Sector-based

66. A company's Finance department needs 200 GB of storage for their business applications. A LUN is created with 200 GB and RAID 1 is configured to support the applications.

If the cost of storage per GB is $2, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application storage?

$ 200

$ 400

$ 800

$ 1500

67. Which EMC product provides policy engine functionality in the hierarchical storage management process?

XtremIO

Cloud Tiering Appliance

Isilon

Atmos

68. To authenticate a user using OpenID authentication control, what are the correct sequence of steps?

69. What accurately describes a data lake in a big data environment?

Designed for query and analysis to support data decisions

Designed to organize, classify, or analyze the data when it is created

Stores current and historical data that must have a structured format on object-based storage

Stores large volumes of structured and unstructured data collected from various sources

70. What functionality does the control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

Forwards data packets based on application layer requirements

Defines network behavior through physical network device policies

Establishes communication between the infrastructure and interface layers

Extracts network information from the data plane and sends it to the application layer

Page 8 of 18

71. What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?

Attempt to modify information for malicious purposes

Attempt to copy the data from the storage system

Attempt to gain unauthorized access into the system

Attempt to gain access to the data in transit

72. Which management function involves configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN in a data center environment?

Performance Management

Change Management

Security Management

Configuration Management

73. Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?

Data center bridging exchange protocol

Enhanced transmission selection

Priority-based flow control

Congestion notification

74. What is true about Storage Class Memory (SCM)?

SCM is slower than DRAM but read and write speeds are faster than flash.

SCM adds a new tier of SAS performance at memory-like cost.

SCM read and write speeds are slower than hard disk drives.

SCM is faster than cache memory but slower than solid state drives.

75. In a NAS environment, which file system provides a public or open variation of the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol and uses the TCP/IP protocol?

Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)

New Technology File System (NTFS)

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

Network File System (NFS)

76. Which factors affect the recovery point objective (RPO) in a storage system-based asynchronous remote replication?

Type of replica volume and size of the buffer

Size of the buffer and available network bandwidth

Size of the replica volume and available network bandwidth

Size of the source volume and distance between sites

77. What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

Creates a different file system for each node in the cluster

Stripes data across nodes with mirror or parity protection

Supports only data replication for protecting data

Pools node resources in a cluster to work as multiple NAS devices

78. What is a function of the NDMP client in an NDMP-based backup approach?

Instructs the backup agent on the storage node to send the data to the backup device

Instructs the NAS head to start the backup operation

Reads the data from the application servers and sends it to the backup device

Reads the data from the NAS and sends it to the backup device

79. What is an accurate statement about a continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication solution?

Write splitter is only implemented at the compute system running on the remote site

Appliances are present at both the source and remote sites

Replica and journal volume should be of the same size

Journal and production volumes must be of the same size

80. What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?

File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster

Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster

Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster

Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster

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81. When using a bridged iSCSI connection, which components facilitate communication between gateways?

Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with Ethernet ports.

Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with only FC ports.

Compute system with FC HBA ports and the storage system with only FC ports.

Compute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.

82. Which elements are associated with an object in an object-based storage system?

Data, metadata, object ID, and attributes

LUN ID, data, metadata, and object ID

Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path

Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path

83. Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?

Secret-key cryptography

One-way hash function

Shared secret

OpenID control

84. In a bridged iSCSI network, which type of network enables the iSCSI gateway to connect servers to storage systems?

Server N_Ports ports and storage system Ethernet Ports

Server EX_Ports ports and storage system Ethernet Ports

Server Ethernet ports and storage system N_Ports

Server Ethernet ports and storage system EX_Ports

85. What is determined by the amount of space configured for the journal in continuous data protection (CDP) replication?

Length of time required to recover the data

Length of time the recovery points can go back

Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point

Amount of space the source and replica volumes require

86. An organization has an iSCSI storage system accessed by 20 compute systems running a hypervisor over a physical Ethernet network. The network enables the transfer of compute-to-compute, compute-to-storage, and management traffic.

The compute systems host several virtual machines that are accessed by 31 user groups. In addition, the network has two Ethernet core switches in an active/passive configuration and three edge switches that connect all the compute systems. Multiple VLAN trunk links exist between the core and the edge switches.

However, recently the user groups are experiencing performance issues due to excessive utilization of the core switch and the trunk links.

What can be implemented to minimize the performance issues?

Switch aggregation

VLAN tagging

Self-forming network

Discovery domain

87. What Smart City municipal function is optimized by IoT?

Tax revenue budgeting and expense accounting

City transportation infrastructure maintenance

Commercial and residential land use and zoning

Development of municipal staff skillset

88. What is a benefit of deploying a Defense in Depth strategy?

Provides additional time for organizations to detect and respond to an attack

Eliminates the attack vector from the IT infrastructure

Eliminates the attack surface from the IT infrastructure

Enables organizations to deploy a unified security solution

89. What is the objective of security control?

Minimize the attack surfaces and minimize the work factors

Maximize the attack surfaces and minimize the attack vector

Minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors

Maximize the attack surfaces and maximize the attack vector

90. A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive.

Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?

Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.

Page 10 of 18

91. Which type of storage device does the “X” represent in the exhibit?

Object-based

Block-based

File-based

Unified-based

92. In which data access method does the file system’s user component reside on the compute system and its storage component reside on the storage system?

Sector-based

Block-based

File-based

Object-based

93. What is a specialized replication technique that enables moving data from one storage system to another within a data center without incurring downtime?

VM-level backup

Archive

Migration

Image-level backup

94. What is a benefit of application virtualization?

Avoids conflicts between different versions of the same application

Enables an application to directly access a LUN on a storage system

Runs applications without requiring the use of cache memory

Presents more memory to an application than is physically available

95. An organization wants to replicate their data by extending the local network across a public network. Prior to implementing replication, they need to secure the network.

Which security control mechanism is recommended?

Virtual local area network

Demilitarized zone

Virtual storage area network

Virtual private network

96. Which EMC Software as a Service solution provides enterprise-grade online file sharing and collaboration?

Syncplicity

Cloud Foundry

CloudArray

vCloud Air

97. Why is it important for organization to deploy intelligent storage systems in their data centers?

Reduce the complexity of managing information by creating silos of storage

Effectively migrate data from a data center to the cloud at no cost

Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up

Effectively store and manage information across data centers

98. What creates a large-scale SAN without storage systems and uses local storage of existing compute systems?

Compute-based SA

Software-defined compute.

Storage-based SA

Software-defined network.

99. Which Dell EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file storage services?

XtremIO

PowerMax

FAST VP

VPLEX

100. Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?

VN_Ports obtain FC addresses

Nodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder

Initialization protocol starts transporting FC data

VN_Port to N_Port pairing is established

Page 11 of 18

101. Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do “X” and “Y” represent in the graphic?

X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port

X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port

102. Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?

X is an E_Port and Y is an F_Port

X is an F_Port and Y is an N_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an F_Port

103. What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?

Consumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications

Consumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings

Consumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems

Consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment

104. An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 3 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 2450 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 2 KB.

The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS.

What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?

105. Which principle enables the creation of a consistent replica of an online database?

Copy on first write

Copy on first access

Redirect on write

Dependent write I/O

106. A system has three components, and all three components need to be operational from 8 AM to 5 PM; Monday to Friday.

During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:

Monday = 7 AM to 11 AM

Tuesday = No failure

Wednesday = 4 PM to 7 PM

Thursday = No failure

Friday = 12 PM to 2 PM

Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM

Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM

What is the availability of component 3 for this week?

84.2%

86.6%

90.8%

92.4%

107. What is used to implement a fully functional SAN?

IPFC

iSCSI

VXLAN

FCIP

108. What is an example of a capacity management task in a storage infrastructure?

Selecting a suitable RAID type for a storage pool

Making configuration changes to address issues

Assessing potential risk of all changes to a configuration item

Trend analysis of storage space consumption

109. In a data center, which type of connectivity is essential for disaster recovery?

Intranet

Dial-up

Redundant internet connections

Bluetooth

110. Which performance feature does an intelligent storage system provide?

RAID 4 data protection

End-to-end SAS storage connectivity

Automated storage tiering

End-to-end NVMe/IB storage connectivity

Page 12 of 18

111. What are the functions of the storage node in a backup architecture?

Responsible for organizing client data and sending data to a backup device

Manages backup operations and gathers data that must backup

Organizes backup data and sends the data to the client device

Manages backup operations and maintains the backup catalog

112. What is the time taken by the platter of a hard disk drive to position data under the read/write head?

Data transfer rate

Rotational latency

Disk service time

Seek time

113. A service provider is offering cloud services to Enterprise P and Enterprise Q.

Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent?

Externally-hosted private cloud

On-premise community cloud

Public cloud

Externally-hosted community cloud

114. Which technology allows automation of sensors and devices to share and process information?

Internet of Things

Cloud computing

Artificial Intelligence

Deep Learning

115. If a company has experienced a passive attack on its IT infrastructure, how is the company's security impacted?

Access to services is denied.

Availability of data is affected.

Information privacy is compromised.

Data is altered by an unauthorized user.

116. An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:

- Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM

- Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM

- Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM

- Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

2 hours

3 hours

28 hours

38 hours

117. An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1.

What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?

4800

11200

16800

22400

118. What is the main difference between replication and migration?

Replication is for long-term storage, migration is for short-term

Replication creates a copy, migration moves the original data

Replication is faster than migration

Migration creates a copy, replication moves the original data

119. In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable storage (CAS) system to store an object?

From the metadata of an object.

By using the logical address of the memory space.

From the binary representation of an object.

By using the physical address of the storage device.

120. What triggers an appropriate workflow upon receiving a service provisioning or management request?

Alerts

Orchestrated operations

Recovery time objective

Infrastructure discovery

Page 13 of 18

121. What is a function of a CDP appliance?

Contains the production volume that needs to be replicated

Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies

Manages both local and remote data replication

Implements data protection at the compute, fabric, or storage system level

122. What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing

Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing

Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality

Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

123. What is an accurate statement about Governance?

Restrict access to certain users

Ensure removal of security risks

Authorize policy-making decisions

Demonstrate adherence to polices

124. Why should a replica be consistent with its source?

Ensure the usability of the replica

Reduce the need to create multiple replicas

Ensure the security of the replica

Reduce the size of the replica

125. A RAID set is created from eight disks, and a RAID level 5 is implemented on the RAID set.

If the strip size is 32 KB, what is the stripe size?

128

160

224

256

126. Which storage infrastructure management activity involves measuring throughput of components and identifying bottlenecks?

Availability management

Security management

Capacity management

Performance management

127. What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?

Applies zoning configurations and provides fabric services

Transfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN

Encapsulates IP packets into FC frames

Provides both NIC and FC HBA functionality

128. What is a function of a virtual machine manager?

Abstracts physical hardware and presents it to a virtual machine

Sends resource requests from multiple virtual machines to the hypervisor kernel

Maps the virtual machine hardware to the hypervisor kernel

Presents resource requests from a virtual machine directly to physical hardware

129. What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote replication?

Size of the buffer

Size of the replica

Response time

Location of the source

130. An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative back ups on the remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.

How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?

Page 14 of 18

131. Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?

Ensure disaster recovery

Provide operational recovery

Ensure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements

Provide flexibility to use stub files for production operations

132. What is a goal of cyber recovery?

Isolate copies of critical data to ensure that an uncompromised copy always exists

Abstract the physical compute hardware from the operating system and applications

Evaluate systems, networks, and applications to find vulnerabilities

Determine persistence access of system, networks, and applications

133. What improves the performance of multi-threaded large block I/O workloads on a solid state drive?

Parallel I/O channels

I/O coalescing

Native command queuing

High capacity RAM cache

134. What is the result of increasing the number of FC switches in a full mesh topology?

Reduces available node ports for ISL connectivity

Reduces number of storage and compute ports for node connectivity

Reduces switch ports available for node connectivity

Reduces switch ports available bandwidth for node connectivity

135. Which of the following elements are crucial in a modern data center? (Choose two)

HVAC systems

Legacy hardware

Scalability

Paper logs for documentation

136. Which type of interface connects SSD drives to the storage array controller?

NVMe/IB

NVMe/TCP

NVMe

NVMe-oF

137. Which Dell EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based deduplication?

Data Domain

SRDF

TimeFinder

Avamar

138. 1.What restricts a tenant’s access to a specific group of object buckets in a software-defined storage environment?

Availability zone

Retention quotas

Namespace

Erasure coding

139. Which data deduplication method would a cloud service provider use when storing back up data at their location?

Source-based

Target-based

Application-based

Agent-based

140. What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?

Supports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds

Allows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud

Enables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff

Allows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider

Page 15 of 18

141. Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined storage infrastructure?

ViPR SRM

Snap Sure

Avamar

FAST VP

142. What is a characteristic of the Orchestration layer in a modern data center architecture?

Interacts directly with physical components across layers to begin provisioning tasks

Enables automatic updates of offerings listed in the service catalog with pre-defined workflows

Allows centralized, automated, and policy-driven management of heterogeneous resources

Enables automated arrangement, coordination, and management of resource provisioning tasks

143. What is true about an iSCSI HBA?

Requires a software adapter with built-in iSCSI functionality

Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing

Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing

144. A company needs to transmit data over long distances between their disparate FC SANs at multiple geographic locations.

Which recommended protocol should be adopted by the company?

iSCSI

FCIP

FCoE

145. Which layer of the OSI reference model provides logical end-to-end connections, sequencing, and integrity?

Transport

Presentation

Session

Data Link

146. What is provided by performing an infrastructure discovery?

Creating a list of infrastructure components and their related information

Classifying, organizing, and analyzing all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes

Standardizing on-going infrastructure management activities to maintain the storage infrastructure using automation

Gathering issues and tracking movement of data and services across the infrastructure

147. What is an accurate statement about a TCP offload engine (TOE) NIC with a software iSCSI adapter?

TCP/IP and iSCSI processing does not require the CPU cycles of a compute system

Offloads the iSCSI processing from the CPU of a compute system

Offloads the TCP/IP processing from the CPU of a compute system

TCP/IP and iSCSI processing requires the CPU cycles of a compute system

148. Which Connectrix FC switch model supports NVMe in a 32Gb/s SAN fabric exclusively?

DS-6600B

MDS 9148S

DS-6505B

MDS-9132T

149. An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental back ups on the remaining days at 9:00 AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.

How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?

150. What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.

Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.

Manages the storage space for all remote clients.

Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

Page 16 of 18

151. Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform that supports object storage services?

Elastic Cloud Storage

ViPR Controller

ScaleIO

XtremIO

152. Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?

Gateway

Scale-out

Unified

Integrated

153. A customer wants 24x7 availability for a business application that uses a file system.

Which operation ensures a consistent replica of the file system?

Unmount the file system prior to the creation of the replica

Stop the application prior to the creation of the replica

Flush the file system buffers after creation of the replica

Flush the file system buffers before creation of the replica

154. Which environment is represented in the exhibit?

Write-back cache

Write-through cache

Read miss

Read hit

155. What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?

Reduces the backup window

Enables restoration to any point-in-time

Eliminates the need for data deduplication

Increases backup device performance

156. Which capability does big data analytics provide?

Enabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data

Storing large volumes of data without affecting availability

Reducing the data storage capacity requirement

Performing analytics using traditional tools

157. When implementing a full mesh topology in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment, what is the effect when there is an increase in the number of switches?

Reduces the available node ports for ISL connectivity.

Increases the load on the ISLs due to traffic aggregation.

Increases the hop count for compute to storage traffic.

Reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity.

158. Which product enables employees to enroll their mobile devices in an enterprise environment and ensures secure access from the devices to the enterprise resources?

Dell PowerEdge

Dell InTrust

VMware AirWatch

VMware AppDefense

159. Refer to the Example:

What do X and Y represent in the formula for Information Availability?

MTTR and RTO

MTTR and MTBF

RTO and RPO

MTBF and MTTR

160. Which storage architecture provides the ability to scale the capacity and performance of a single storage system by upgrading its controllers and storage?

Direct matrix

Scale-out

Virtual matrix

Scale-up

Page 17 of 18

161. The exhibit illustrates a software-defined storage environment.

What do the labels “X” and “Y” represent in the exhibit?

X is a virtual storage system and Y is a virtual storage pool

X is a virtual storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system

X is a physical storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system

X is a virtual storage pool and Y is a physical storage system

162. Match the virtual machine (VM) file with its description.

163. What is a key benefit for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment?

Maximizes application and information availability

Reduces required maintenance time for IT resources

Avoids security risks that exposes the business data

Reduces the cost of protecting data

164. Which system has a chassis with slots holding multiple servers and provides an integrated power supply, cooling, networking, and management functions?

Tower compute system

Rack-mounted compute system

Mainframe compute system

Blade compute system

165. What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

Avoid performing data archiving.

Reduce the RPO to near-zero.

Reduce the deduplication ratio.

Avoid performing data backups.

166. Which task is performed during authentication using Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?

Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

Authenticates client-server applications over the network by using shared-key cryptography

Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

Uses a hash function to convert the secret code into a hash value that is shared between initiator and target

167. Key technologies driving digital transformation in data centers include:

Machine Learning

Blockchain

Dial-up Modems

Artificial Intelligence

168. What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?

Provides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide

Distributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization

Optimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link

Provides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic

169. What is an accurate statement about remote desktop services?

Operating system and applications hosted on a remote compute system are shared by multiple users

Users are provided dedicated virtual machines running operating system and applications, and hosted on a client system

Users have the flexibility to install applications and modify operating system settings on the remote compute system

Users' interface of the remote desktop is transmitted to the client without the use of a remote display protocol

170. Why do organizations need a malware protection software?

Secure critical applications by using strong credentials

Prevent authorized modification of OS-sensitive areas

Protect applications and the OS against trojan horse programs

Prevent eavesdropping and tampering of application data

Page 18 of 18

171. What does the "X" represent in the graphic?

E_port

F_port

G_port

N_port

172. Which EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file storage services?

ViPR Controller

ScaleIO

Elastic Cloud Storage

XtremIO

173. Which block-based storage system component connects hosts to the storage system?

Storage drives

Cache

Back-end ports

Front-end ports

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